🏠/MRCOG Part 1 — Study Book/Appendices/Mock Exams/Mock Exam 07

Mock Exam 07

Final Mock 7

MRCOG Part 1 practice — 200 questions with answers and explanations. Cleaned for readability.

Q1. A population has a mean weight of 70 kg, with a standard - A) deviation of 18. - B) What is the standard error of the mean if the sample size is 36? - A) 6 - C) 18 - C) 2 - D) 3 - E) 5

Explanation: 3 Q2. What measure of clinical efficiency does this equation represent? - A) Probability/(1-Probability)? - B) Accuracy - C) Likelihood ratio - D) Odds - E) Positive predictive value Relative risk

Explanation: Odds Q3. What level of evidence comes from at least one randomised - A) controlled trial? - B) 1A - C) 2A - D) 1B - E) 2B - E) 3

Explanation: 1A: Evidence obtained from Meta Analysis of Randomised Trial 1B: Evidence obtained from at least one Randomised Trial

The standard error of the mean is 6. What is the 95 % confidence interval? - A) 82 - 88 - B) 71 - 91 - C) 77 - 103 - D) 73 - 97 - E) 77 - 103

Explanation: 73 - 97 Q4. With regard to calculating standard deviation - If standard - A) deviation = root x, what is x? - B) Mean - C) Mean/n-1 - D) Range/n-1 - E) Standard error Variance

Explanation: Variance

labour in 5 women, what is the mode duration: 0.3 hours 0.8 hours 1.7 hours 2.7 hours 0.3 hours - A) 0.3 hours - B) 0.8 hours - C) 1.7 hours - D) 2.7 hours - E) 3.6 hours

Explanation: 0.3 hours

women. What type of scale is hair colour? - A) Interval - B) Linear ordinal - C) Nominal - D) Ordinal - E) Ratio

Explanation: Nominal Q5. What is the incidence of premature ovarian failure in women < 40 - A) years of age? - B) 1% - C) 3% - D) 5% - E) 10% 15%

Explanation: 1%

physiologically increase in pregnancy? - A) 1.5 - B) 2 - C) 3 - D) 5 - E) 10

Explanation: 3 Q6. What substance can cause a delay in fetal lung maturation? - A) Thyroxine - B) Dexamethasone - C) Catecholamines - D) Betamethasones - E) Androgens

Explanation: Androgens Q7. What is the ratio of plasma testosterone carriage in females? - A) 10 % free 30 % albumin and 60 % SHBG bound - B) 25 % free, 30 % albumin and 55 % SHBG bound - C) 30 % free, 19 % albumin and 51 SHBG bound - D) 1 % free, 19 % albumin bound and 80 % SHBG bound - E) 5 % free, 50 % albumin and 45 % SHBG bound

Explanation: 1 % free, 19 % albumin bound and 80 % SHBG bound Q8. What is the most frequent cause of pathological - A) hyperprolactinaemia? - B) Drugs - C) Hypothyroidism - D) Macroprolactinoma - E) Renal failure Stalk syndrome

Explanation: Drugs

  • A) Adipose tissue
  • B) Corpus luteum
  • C) Fetal adrenal glands
  • D) Maternal adrenal glands
  • E) Placenta

Explanation: Placenta Q9. What is the placental mechanism for the uptake of glucose? - A) Carrier mediated - B) Facilitated diffusion - C) Osmotic gradient - D) Sodium pump transfer - E) Pinocytosis

Explanation: Facilitated diffusion

after birth is mediated by which vasoactive substance? - A) Bradykinin - B) Prostacyclin - C) Substance P - D) Vasopressin - E) VEGF

Explanation: Bradykinin

male? - A) Genital fold - B) Genital swelling - C) Urogenital sinus - D) Genital tubercle - E) Paramesonephric duct

Explanation: Genital tubercle

  • A) Amniotic cavity
  • B) Genital ridge
  • C) Paramesonephric duct
  • D) Pronephros
  • E) Yolk sac

Explanation: Yolk sac Q10. Which cell type secretes HCG? - A) Amnion - B) Cytotrophoblast - C) Mesoderm - D) Syncytiotrophoblast - E) Yolk sac

Explanation: Syncytiotrophoblast

structures to correctly fuse? - A) Genital tubercles - B) Mesonephric ducts - C) Metanephric ducts - D) Paramesonephric ducts - E) Pronephric ducts

Explanation: Paramesonephric ducts

Q11. The epithelium of the GI tract develops from which germ cell - A) layer? - B) Amnion - C) Ectoderm - D) Endoderm - E) Extra-embryonic membrane Mesoderm

Explanation: Endoderm Q12. Which embryological structure gives rise to the cervix in the - A) developing human? - B) Cloaca - C) Metanephric bud - D) Mullerian duct - E) Vitelline duct Wolffian duct

Explanation: Mullerian duct Q13. Which substance(s) ensure persistence of the mesonephric duct - A) in the male? - B) Androgens - C) HCG - D) Mullerian inhibitory factor - E) Oestrogens Progesterone

Explanation: Androgens

factors Consider planned birth at 35-36 weeks gestation Consider planned birth at 38-39 weeks gestation Consider planned birth by 40 weeks gestation Plan anytime after 37 weeks None of above

Q14. Explanation: - A) Which of the following tissues is not derived from the ectoderm? - B) Brain - C) Dermis - D) Epidermis - E) Retina of the eye Spinal cord

Explanation: Dermis

structure? - A) Allantois - B) Umbilical artery - C) Umbilical vein - D) Urachus - E) Vitelline duct

Explanation: Urachus Q15. What is the major production mechanism of 2,3 DPG? - A) Anaerobic metabolism in smooth muscle - B) Gluconeogenesis - C) Glycolysis - D) Only in the liver - E) Supra renal glands

Explanation: Glycolysis Q16. What proportion of body calcium is stored in the skeletal system? - A) 5% - B) 10% - C) 80% - D) 90% - E) 99%

Explanation: 99% Q17. With regard to plasma calcium what proportion is carried in an - A) ionised form? - B) 1% - C) 5% - D) 45% - E) 75% 78%

Explanation: 45%

  • A) External iliac artery
  • B) Internal iliac artery
  • C) Inferior mesenteric artery
  • D) Uterine artery
  • E) Ovarian artery

Explanation: Ovarian artery Q18. Which muscles are contained in the deep perineal pouch? - A) Deep transverse perineal muscles and bulbopongiosus - B) Deep transverse perineal muscles and the urethral sphincter - C) Ischiocaverosus and bulbopongiosus - D) Superficial transverse perineal muscles and bulbopongiosus - E) Superficial transverse perineal muscles and the urethral sphincter

Explanation: Deep transverse perineal muscles and the urethral sphincter Q19. Which muscles form the pelvic floor? - A) Levator ani and piriformis - B) Levator ani and coccygeus - C) Obturator internus and coccygeus - D) Obturator internus and levator ani - E) Obturator internus and piriformis

Explanation: Levator ani and coccygeus

  • A) External iliac artery
  • B) Femoral artery
  • C) Internal iliac artery
  • D) Umbilical artery
  • E) Uterine artery

Explanation: External iliac artery Q20. What is the nerve root of ilioinguinal nerve? - A) T12 - B) L1 - C) L2 - D) L3 - E) L4

Explanation: L1

derived predominantly from which spinal segment? - A) S1 - B) S2 - C) S3 - D) S4 - E) L5

Explanation: S4

for instrumental delivery. The pudendal nerve derived fibres from which spinal segments? - A) L4-5 - B) L5-S1 - C) S2-4 - D) S3-5 - E) S4-5

Explanation: S2-4 Q21. With regard to Conn's syndrome, what are the likely changes in - A) pH, potassium and sodium concentration? - B) Hypernatraemia, Hyperkalaemia, alkalosis - C) Hypernatraemia, Hypokalaemia, acidosis - D) Hypernatraemia, Hypokalaemia, alkalosis - E) Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis Hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, acidosis

Explanation: Hypernatraemia, Hypokalaemia, alkalosis Q22. What is the definition of premature menopause? - A) Menopause before 50 years of age

  • B) (Page 2)*
  • C) 38.
  • D) 39.
  • E) 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. Menopause before 45 years of age Menopause before 40 years of age Menopause before 35 years of age Menopause before 30 years of age

Explanation: Menopause before 40 years of age

and a dislike of cold weather. She was noted to have a high prolactin and normal electrolytes. She is otherwise fit and well. What is the likely cause of the high prolactin? - A) Antiemetic use - B) Hypothyroidism - C) Neuroleptic use - D) Prolactinoma - E) Renal failure

Explanation: Hypothyroidism Q23. What is the most common cause of delayed puberty? - A) Constitutional delay - B) Low body mass index - C) Ovarian failure - D) Pituitary failure - E) Turner's syndrome

Explanation: Constitutional delay Q24. Which three hormones consist of almost identical alpha chains? - A) ADH, Oxytocin, FSH - B) FSH, LH, growth hormone - C) HCG, ADH and FSH - D) HCG, FSH and LH - E) TSH, growth hormone, HCG

Explanation: HCG, FSH and LH Q25. Which hormone is secreted by acidophil cells of the anterior - A) pituitary? - B) Oxytocin - C) Growth hormone - D) FSH - E) LH TSH

Explanation: Growth hormone Q26. What is the recommended drug of choice for malaria prophylaxis - A) in the third trimester of pregnancy in chloroquine resistant areas? - B) Chloroquine - C) Doxycycline - D) Mefloquine - E) Oral quinine Proguanil hydrochloride

Explanation: Mefloquine Q27. With regard to hormone replacement therapy, how many days per - A) month is it required to administer progesterone to provide endometrial - B) protection? - C) 5-7 - D) 7-8 - E) 12-14 14-18 21

Explanation: 12-14 Q28. What drug given close to term can produce grey baby syndrome? - A) Chloramphenicol - B) Gabapentin - C) Labetalol - D) Nitrofurantoin - E) Tetracycline

Explanation: Chloramphenicol

continue after delivery in a patient with severe pre eclampsia? - A) 1 hour - B) 6 hours - C) 12 hours - D) 24 hours - E) 48 hours

Explanation: 24 hours

neonatal respiratory depression? - A) 2 hours - B) 3 hours - C) 4 hours - D) 5 hours - E) 6 hours

Explanation: 2 hours Q29. What antihypertensive agent used in pregnancy consists of a - A) dihydropyridine group? - B) Nifedipine - C) Labetalol - D) Methyldopa - E) Hydralazine Captopril

Explanation: Nifedipine Q30. What tocolytic drug can be administered subcutaneously prior to - A) performing an external cephalic version? - B) GTN - C) Magnesium sulphate - D) Nifedpine - E) Captopril Terbutaline

Explanation: Terbutaline Q31. Why is there an ethinyl group added to estradiol in the - A) manufacture of combined oral contraceptive pill? - B) Prevents deactivation in the gut - C) Increases the half life of the drug - D) Reduces the agonist effect upon the endometrium - E) Increases the binding to SHBG Increases the agonist effect upon bone

Explanation: Prevents deactivation in the gut Q32. What type of drug is misoprostol? - A) PG E1 antagonist - B) PG E1 analog - C) PG E2 analog - D) PG F2 alpha analog - E) PG F2 alpha antagonist

Explanation: PG E1 analog Q33. What class of drug is cyclizine? - A) 5-HT3 antagonist - B) H1 antagonist - C) H2 antagonist - D) H1 agonist - E) H2 agonist

Explanation: H1 antagonist

surgery is most likely to be related to - A) Potassium release from muscle - B) Cytokine release - C) Surgical site infection - D) Anaesthetic use of succinylcholine agents - E) Severe sepsis

Explanation: Cytokine release

  • A) 1%
  • B) 10%
  • C) 30%
  • D) 50%
  • E) 90%

Explanation: Mortality of sepsis 30% Severe sepsis 50%

infections. Which bacteria is most commonly associated with such infections? - A) Candida albicans - B) Cryptococcus neoformans - C) Plasmodium falciparum - D) Trichomonas vaginalis - E) Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus

  • A) Bacteroides
  • B) Coli
  • C) Enterococcus
  • D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • E) Streptococcus

Explanation: Streptococcus

results shows a growth of gram negative bacilli that are facultative anaerobes. What is the most likely organism? - A) Bacteroides - B) Coli - C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa - D) Staphylococcus aureus - E) Streptococcus

Explanation: E. Coli

removal of her intrauterine conceptive device. At removal the IUCD is swabbed. The microbiology report notes the presence of gram positive bacilli that are obligate anaerobes. What is the likely organism? - A) Bacteroides - B) Coli - C) Actinomyces Israeli - D) Klebsiella - E) Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: Actinomyces Israeli Q34. What many days after the onset of the symptoms of varicella - A) does VZV specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) become detectable - B) Positive before the symptoms - C) 1 day - D) 2 days - E) 3 days 4 days

Explanation: 4 days Q35. What type of immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? - A) IgG - B) IgA - C) IgM - D) IgD - E) IgE

Explanation: IgG

Down syndrome screening. The risk comes back as 1 in 1000. What is the appropriate course of action? - A) Termination of pregnancy - B) Inform the woman that the baby does not have Down syndrome - C) Advise that diagnostic tests are not indicated - D) Amniocentesis - E) Chorionic villus sampling

Explanation: Advise that diagnostic tests are not indicated Q36. What is the most common cause of stillbirth in the - A) United Kingdom? - B) Antepartum haemorrhage - C) Congenital malformations - D) Infection - E) Preeclampsia Unexplained

Explanation: Unexplained

onset left-sided abdominal pain. It is 17 days since her last menstrual period and she has a regular cycle. She is not using contraception. She is otherwise fit and well. An ultrasound is arranged with the following report: Normal uterus and right ovary. In the left adnexa is a cystic structure measuring 3x4 cm with internal echoes in a reticular pattern and debris. There is a small amount of fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most likely cause of her pain? - A) Dermoid cyst - B) Ectopic pregnancy - C) Haemorrhagic cyst - D) Ovarian carcinoma - E) Ovarian torsion

Explanation: Haemorrhagic cyst

  • A) Primary syphilis
  • B) Secondary syphilis
  • C) Tertiary syphilis
  • D) Cardiovascular quaternary syphilis
  • E) Neurological quaternary syphilis

Explanation: Tertiary syphilis

urinary urgency and frequency, nocturia and urge incontinence. She also leaks urine and when coughing or sneezing. Physical examination is unremarkable, with no evidence of pelvic floor prolapse, and urine sample is clear. What is the most appropriate course of action? - A) arrange a laparoscopic colposuspension - B) arrange an anterior repair - C) arrange insertion of a tension-free vaginal tape - D) arrange urodynamic testing - E) commence treatment with oxybutynin

Explanation: arrange urodynamic testing

heavy postmenopausal leeding. A hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy are performed and histology results confirms an endometrial carcinoma. What is the most appropriate next step? Arrange a urgent abdominal hysterectomy - A) Arrange of vaginal hysterectomy - B) Refer for radiotherapy - C) Refer the case to the multidisciplinary team meeting for a management - D) plan - E) Refer to palliative care

Explanation: Refer the case to the multidisciplinary team meeting for a management plan

intense itching, which is worse on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet. A set of LFTs is requested, with the following results: Albumin- 29 g/l ALP- 279 u/l ALT- 80 u/l Gamma GT- 50 u/ml Bilirubin- 19 micromol/l What other test would you request at this stage? - A) Viral hepatitis screen - B) Urea and electrolytes - C) Full blood count - D) Calcium and phosphate levels - E) Bile acid

Explanation: Bile acid

ward with a 2 weeks history of vomiting. She is prescribed IV rehydration and antiemetics. She should also be prescribed which vitamin the reduce the chance of Wernicke's encephalopathy? - A) Vitamin A - B) Vitamin B1 - C) Vitamin B6 - D) Vitamin B12 - E) Vitamin C

Explanation: Vitamin B1

likely to be reduced by the open (Hasson) technique as opposed to the closed (Veress needle) technique? - A) Bladder injury - B) Large bowel injury - C) Major vessel injury - D) Small bowel injury - E) Uterine injury

Explanation: Major vessel injury

fluids. Unfortunately an infusion pump is not available and the fluid giving set is incorrectly set up, resulting in the woman receiving 6 litres of fluid in 24 hours. The following day on the ward round she is noted to be breathless with low oxygen saturation. What is the most likely complication? - A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome - B) Bronchitis - C) Deep venous thrombosis - D) Pulmonary embolus - E) Pulmonary oedema

Explanation: Pulmonary oedema Q37. Which of the following represent moderate ICP? - A) In woman with peak bile acids 10-18 micromol/L - B) In woman with peak bile acids 19-39 micromol/L - C) In woman with peak bile acids 40-99 micromol/L - D) In woman with peak bile acids 100 micromol/L or more - E) None of above

Explanation: criteria are met before offering treatment to minors under 16 years of age without parental consent. To which type of treatment do they specifically refer? - A) Abortion - B) Antibiotic treatment - C) Contraception - D) Sexually transmitted infections - E) Surgery

Explanation: Contraception

(Page 3) 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. Q38. What is the more common direct cause of maternal death in - A) the United Kingdom? - B) Ectopic pregnancies - C) Sepsis - D) Haemorrhage - E) Preeclampsia Thrombosis

Explanation: Thrombosis

meiotic division of the oocyte and fusion of the cortical granules with the zona pellucida. - A) Which ion is responsible? - B) Na+ - C) HCO3- - D) K+ - E) Cl￾Ca2+

Explanation: Ca2+

what structure? - A) Oocyte plasma membrane - B) Perivitelline space - C) Polar body - D) Zona pellucida - E) Tight junction

Explanation: Zona pellucida

Q39. Breastfeeding causes the release of which substance which that - A) causes uterine contraction? - B) Prostaglandin E1 - C) Ergometrine - D) Prostacyclin - E) Prostaglandin F2alpha Oxytocin

Explanation: Oxytocin

Q40. Towards the end of pregnancy, the cervix becomes softer owing - A) to the action of collagenase. - B) Which cell type congregates in the cervix to release collaganase? - C) Basophils - D) Eosinophils - E) Macrophages Neutrophils Macrophages

Explanation: Neutrophils Q41. Which organ receives the greatest proportion of the increased - A) maternal cardiac output at term? - B) Breast - C) Kidney - D) GI tract - E) Uterus Skin

Explanation: Skin Q42. What type of cells are Sertoli cells - A) Circular cells - B) Cuboidal cells - C) Epithelial with gap junctions - D) Flat columnar - E) Tall columnar

Explanation: Tall columnar Q43. What hormone is significantly increased on day 0 of the - A) menstrual cycle? - B) Estradiol - C) LH - D) FSH - E) Progesterone Inhibin

Explanation: FSH Q44. With regard to the ovary, what cells produce testosterone? - A) Basal lamina - B) Cumulus granulosa - C) Leydig - D) Mural granulosa - E) Theca

Explanation: Theca Q45. What is the finite life span of the corpus luteum? - A) 8 days - B) 10 days - C) 12 days - D) 14 days - E) 16 days

Explanation: 14 days

  • A) 3 hours
  • B) 6 hours
  • C) 12 hours
  • D) 18 hours
  • E) 36 hours

Explanation: 36 hours Q46. What proportion of primordial follicles undergo atresia to create a - A) primary follicle? - B) 20% - C) 50% - D) 90% - E) 95% 99%

Explanation: 99% Q47. With regard to ovulation, what is the fluid filled space in a follicle - A) called? - B) Antrum - C) Blastocyst - D) Lacuna - E) Basal lamina Uniblastocyst

Explanation: Antrum Q48. What size is a resting follicle? - A) 0.02mm - B) 2mm - C) 10mm - D) 15mm - E) 20mm

Explanation: 0.02mm Q49. What size is a follicle that is ready to ovulate? - A) 0.02mm - B) 2mm - C) 10mm - D) 15mm - E) 20mm

Explanation: 20mm

greatest? - A) 12 weeks - B) 24 weeks - C) 32 weeks - D) 38 weeks - E) 42 weeks

Explanation: 32 weeks Q50. What is the increase in oxygen consumption in pregnancy? - A) 10 ML / min - B) 20 ML / min - C) 30 ML / min - D) 40 ML / min - E) 50 ML / min

Explanation: 50 ML / min Q51. What factor shifts the 02 dissociation curve to the right (i.e. - A) reduces Hb affinity for 02)? - B) Decreased CO2 concentration - C) Decreased hydrogen ion concentration - D) Increased sodium concentration - E) Increased 2,3 DPG Reduced temperature

Explanation: Increased 2,3 DPG Q52. What coagulation factors are reduced in pregnancy? - A) III, IV - B) IX, X - C) V, VII - D) Xl, Xll - E) XI, XIII

Explanation: XI, XIII Q53. Where is the Chloride shift phenomenon seen? - A) Red blood cells - B) White blood cells - C) Platelets - D) Glomerulus - E) Distal convoluted tubules

Explanation: Red blood cells Q54. What is the change in FEV1 in pregnancy? - A) + 10 % - B) - 10 % - C) + 20 % - D) - 20 % - E) No change

Explanation: No change Q55. What is the major hydrogen ion buffer in blood? - A) Albumin - B) Bicarbonate - C) Haemoglobin - D) Phosphate - E) Uric acid

Explanation: Haemoglobin Q56. What is the change in total lung capacity in pregnancy? - A) Decreased by 100 mls - B) Decreased by 200 mls - C) Increased by 100 mls - D) Increased by 200 mls - E) No change

Explanation: Decreased by 200 mls Q57. What are the physiological ECG changes on pregnancy? - A) Inverted T waves in lead II, Q waves in leads Ill and aVF - B) Inverted T waves in lead III, Q waves are always pathological - C) Inverted T waves in lead III, Q waves in leads Il and aVF - D) Inverted T waves in lead III, Q waves in leads Ill and aVF - E) Inverted T waves in lead III, Q waves in leads Ill and aVR

Explanation: Inverted T waves in lead III, Q waves in leads Ill and aVF Q58. What physiological lung volume increases in pregnancy - A) compared to the non-pregnant state? - B) Expiratory reserve capacity - C) Inspiratory reserve capacity - D) Residual volume - E) Tidal volume Vital capacity

Explanation: Tidal volume Q59. What is the normal haemoglobin concentration of a newborn? - A) 8-10 g/dl - B) 10.5-12.5 g/dI - C) 12.5-14.5 g/dI - D) 14.5-16.5 g/dI - E) 16.5-17.5 g/dI

Explanation: 16.5-17.5 g/dI Q60. What maternal condition is recognised in causing a false positive - A) kleihauer test? - B) Severe asthma - C) Ischaemic heart disease - D) Hypothyroidism - E) Hyperthyroidism Haemoglobinopathies

Explanation: Haemoglobinopathies Q61. Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors? - A) Factors II, V, IV, X - B) Factors III, IV, VI, X - C) Factors II, IV, IX, XI - D) Factors I, II, V, X - E) Factors II, VII, IX, X

Explanation: Factors II, VII, IX, X

of itching without rash with peak bile acids 18 micromol/L. Diagnosis Mild ICP Moderate ICP Severe ICP Gestational pruritus Allergy

Q62. Explanation: - A) Which clotting factor activates fibrinogen in the common - B) pathway? - C) Thrombin - D) Prothrombin - E) Factor VIII Factor XIII Kinin

Explanation: Thrombin

increase in size of the pituitary gland? - A) 5% - B) 10% - C) 25% - D) 50% - E) 80%

Explanation: 50% Q63. Where is the kidney is the predominant effect of arginine - A) vasopressin seen? - B) Correct Answer: - C) Distal convoluted tubules

Explanation: Distal convoluted tubules Q64. What mechanism increases the oxygen binding capacity of fetal - A) haemoglobin compared to adult haemoglobin? - B) Increased binding to 2,3 DPG - C) Reduced binding to 2,3 DPG - D) Increased structural concavity - E) Reduced structural concavity Increased carbonic anhydrase

Explanation: Reduced binding to 2,3 DPG

identification of proteins - A) Northern blotting - B) Eastern blotting - C) Southern blotting - D) Western blotting - E) Far-Eastern blotting

Explanation: Western blotting

  • A) The ribosome from mRNA
  • B) DNA base pairs
  • C) Complementary DNA strands
  • D) Radionucleotide from electophoresis gel
  • E) Phosphodiester bonds

Explanation: Complementary DNA strands

  • A) Replication
  • B) Mutation
  • C) Transcription
  • D) Translation
  • E) DNA ligation

Explanation: Transcription

  • A) DNA reverse transcriptase
  • B) Taq polymerase
  • C) RNA polymerase
  • D) DNA ligase
  • E) DNA polymerase

Explanation: DNA polymerase Q65. Which base is unique to DNA? - A) Adenosine - B) Uracil

  • C) (Page 4)*
  • D) 110.
  • E) 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. Guanine Thymine Cytosine

Explanation: Thymine

  • A) Ester bonds
  • B) Disulphide bonds
  • C) Hydrogen bonds
  • D) Phosphodiester bonds
  • E) Covalent bonds

Explanation: Phosphodiester bonds

  • A) Hair root
  • B) An enucleated ovum
  • C) Mature RBCs
  • D) Mature spermatozoan
  • E) All of above

Explanation: Mature RBCs

  • A) Nucleus only
  • B) Mitochondrion only
  • C) Chloroplast only
  • D) All of above
  • E) None of above

Explanation: All of above

difference present) but a small trial does not find a statistically significant difference, what error is most likely to have occurred? - A) Confidence interval error - B) External validity error - C) P value error - D) Type I error - E) Type II error

Explanation: Type II error

cramping abdominal pain after 7 weeks of amenorrhoea. A few days earlier she had a positive result on a home pregnancy test. The cervix is closed on examination. An ultrasound scan shows an intrauterine gestational sac. A fetal pole with cardiac activity is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis? - A) Complete miscarriage - B) Incomplete miscarriage - C) Inevitable miscarriage - D) Septic miscarriage - E) Threatened miscarriage

Explanation: Threatened miscarriage Q66. Which chromosome contains the gene that codes for the alpha - A) globin chain (a constituent component of haemoglobin)? - B) Chromosome 5 - C) Chromosome 7 - D) Chromosome 11 - E) Chromosome 16 Chromosome 18

Explanation: Chromosome 16 Q67. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to - A) synthesize DNA? - B) DNA dependant RNA polymerase - C) DNA polymerase - D) RNA polymerase - E) Reverse transcriptase All of above

Explanation: Reverse transcriptase

feeling unwell, with backache, fever and rigors. She has a temperature of 39.5°C. Urinalysis shows leucocytes and protein +++. Her blood pressure is 80/50. Which action is most appropriate? - A) Make referral for physicians to review - B) Give intramuscular steroids to promote fetal lung maturity - C) Commence 7-day course of oral antibiotics - D) Arrange ultrasound of renal tract - E) Admit to ICU/HDU for intravenous antibiotics and supportive care

Explanation: Admit to ICU/HDU for intravenous antibiotics and supportive care

the risk of stillbirth only increases above population rate once their serum bile acid concentration is - A) 100 micromol/L or more - B) 50 micromol/L or more - C) 19 micromol/L or more - D) 10 micromol/L or more - E) None of above

Explanation: 100 micromol/L or more

  • A) Blister
  • B) Bulla
  • C) Vesicle
  • D) Acanthosis nigricans
  • E) Dermatographia artefacta

Explanation: Dermatographia artefacta

What will the doctor do in line with best practice? - A) Family law reform act - B) Fraser ruling - C) Gillick competent - D) British guidelines - E) Refusal to consent

Explanation: Fraser ruling

procure abortion in a hospital without the knowledge of her parents. What will the doctor do in line with best practice? - A) Family law reform act - B) Fraser ruling - C) Gillick competent - D) British guidelines - E) Refusal to consent

Explanation: Gillick competent

scan report. Her scan showing Diagnosis - A) Meckel's diverticulum - B) Gastroschisis - C) Exomphalos - D) Physiological hernia - E) None of above

Explanation: Gastroschisis

scan report. Her scan showing Diagnosis - A) Meckel's diverticulum - B) Gastroschisis - C) Exomphalos - D) Physiological hernia - E) None of above

Explanation: Exomphalos

  • A) Intramural fibroid
  • B) Submucosal fibroid
  • C) Adenomyosis
  • D) Hyaline degeneration of fibroid
  • E) Red degeneration of fibroid

Explanation: Red degeneration of fibroid Q68. What is the most abundant hormone circulating in females? - A) Estrone - B) Estradiol - C) DHT - D) Progesterone - E) DHEA

Explanation: DHEA and its sulfated form, DHEAS, are the most abundant endogenous steroids in human circulation, and are mainly produced in the adrenal cortex. The synthesis of DHEA is stimulated by ACTH secreted by the pituitary gland. DHEA is converted from pregnenolone by CYP17 (170-hydroxylase, 17,20-lyase). DHEA can be converted to androstenedione by 3B-HSD, and subsequently to active androgens and estrogens. Q69. What is the most common condition associated with differentiated - A) VIN? - B) HPV 6 infection - C) HPV 16 infection - D) HPV 18 infection - E) Lichen sclerosis Ovarian cancer

Explanation: Lichen sclerosis, this is a non HPV condition. Q70. What is the antibody involved in Hashimoto thyroiditis? - A) TRAP autoantibodies to the thyrotropin receptor - B) TPO-Thyroid peroxidase antibodies - C) ANA-antinuclear antibodies - D) LA-lupus antibodies - E) ACL-anticardiolipin antibodies

Explanation: TPO-Thyroid peroxidase antibodies, These antibodies can be a sign of Hashimoto disease, also known as Hashimoto thyroiditis. This is an autoimmune disease and the most common cause of hypothyroidism. Graves caused by autoantibodies to the thyrotropin receptor (TRAb) that activate the receptor, thereby stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis and secretion as well as thyroid growth. Q71. Which of the following features of atrophic endometrium or - A) menopausal endometrium is true? - B) Atrophic glands - C) Cubical epithelial lining - D) Abundant cystically dilated glands - E) Abundant fibrous stroma None of the above

Explanation: Atrophic glands

pregnancy for acute VTE, how much you should wait before inserting epidural catheter from the last dose? - A) 4 hours - B) 6 hours - C) 12 hours - D) 24 hours - E) 36 hours

Explanation: 24 hours Consider regional analgesia for women who have been on low￾molecular-weight heparin and who have not had a prophylactic dose for at least 12 hours, or a therapeutic dose for at least 24 hours. For women taking low-molecular-weight heparin: wait 12 hours after a prophylactic dose before siting an epidural, or removing an epidural catheter wait 24 hours after a therapeutic dose before siting an epidural or spinal, or removing an epidural catheter after siting an epidural or a spinal, or removing an epidural catheter, wait 4 hours before administering a further dose of low￾molecular-weight heparin do not administer therapeutic dose low-molecular-weight heparin while an epidural catheter is in place.

nodule at the site of the scar. What type of cell is found in this type of inflammation? - A) Eosinophils - B) Neutrophils - C) Langerhans cells - D) Lymphocytes - E) Platelets

Explanation: A suture granuloma forms as a result of the body's immune system attempting to wall off the foreign substance from surrounding body tissues. Immune system cells cluster around the foreign body or the site where a foreign body has been removed, encapsulating the area with immune cells. The granuloma can look red and swollen in some cases.

shows the following IgG positive IgM negative Avidity index of CMV IgG is 0.8 "high" - A) She had a past infection, recurrent cannot be ruled out - B) She has latent infection - C) She has no current or past infection - D) She has primary infection - E) She has re-exposure to CMV

Explanation: She has latent infection. Q72. What is the % risk for pneumonitis in a primary varicella infection - A) in pregnancy? - B) 1-2% - C) 2-5% - D) 10-15% - E) 15-20% 20-25%

Explanation: Historic estimates of pneumonitis in varicella cases in pregnancy have been between 10% to 14% reported in small case series (24). In a more recent US based study of almost 1000 pregnant women with chickenpox admitted to hospital between 2003 and 2010, the proportion with pneumonitis was 2.5% and no maternal deaths were reported. probably reflecting improved medical care and use of acyclovir treatment (25). Studies show that the risk of pneumonitis in pregnant women with chickenpox is increased towards term (26. 27). The highest risk of maternal pneumonitis appears to be associated with maternal infection after 18 to 20 weeks of pregnancy. Encephalitis is a rare complication with mortality of 5 to 10%. There is little evidence to suggest that pregnancies complicated by chickenpox in the first trimester are more likely to result in fetal loss.

expected BHCG? - A) 600 - B) 1200-1500 - C) 2000 - D) 2500-5000 - E) 10000

Explanation: The most accurate answer is at least 1000iu/ml In early pregnancy, a transvaginal ultrasound is much more accurate than an abdominal ultrasound. If a transvaginal ultrasound is used, the sac may be visible at about 5 weeks. At this time the average diameter of the sac is 2 to 3 millimetres. Q73. Which one is more highly infectious stage of syphilis in - A) pregnancy? - B) Primary - C) Secondary - D) Early latent - E) Late latent Tertiary

Explanation: Primary Q74. Which of the following arteries can arise from both internal and - A) external iliac artery? - B) Uterine - C) Vesicle - D) Superior gluteal - E) Inferior gluteal Obturator

Explanation: Obturator

  • A) Osteoclast
  • B) Oocyte
  • C) Spermatozoa
  • D) RBC
  • E) Neuroglia

Explanation: Oocyte

  • A) Clitoris
  • B) Posterior fourchette
  • C) Mons pubis
  • D) Labia minora
  • E) Labia majora

Explanation: Labia majora Q75. Most common subtype of Lichen planus to cause symptoms - A) Atrophy - B) Hypertrophy - C) Erosive - D) Classical - E) Non classical

Explanation: Erosive Q76. Warfarin embryopathy occurs at which gestation - A) 0-5 weeks - B) 6-9 weeks - C) 12-15 weeks - D) 20-25 weeks - E) 25-30 weeks

Explanation: 6-9 weeks

(Page 5) 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. - A) Agenesis of corpus callosum - B) Nasal hypoplasia - C) Microphthalmia - D) Microcephaly - E) Ventriculomegaly

Explanation: Nasal hypoplasia

  • A) Water
  • B) Hydrogen
  • C) Oxygen
  • D) Nitrogen
  • E) Carbon

Explanation: Hydrogen Q77. Midwife activates red alert. In labour room, noted shoulder - A) dystocia. - B) What is the first most appropriate step - C) Get on all fours - D) Cleidotomy - E) Zavanelli manoeuvre Suprapubic pressure McRobert manoeuvre

Explanation: McRobert manoeuvre

  • A) Vit B1
  • B) Vit B3
  • C) Vit B5
  • D) Vit B6
  • E) Vit B12

Explanation: Vit B6 Q78. Gene mutation in 11 hydroxylase deficiency - A) 7p21 - B) 6q21 - C) 6p21 - D) 7q21 - E) 8q21

Explanation: 8q21 Q79. Gene mutation in 21 hydroxylase deficiency - A) 7p21 - B) 6q21 - C) 6p21 - D) 7q21 - E) 8q21

Explanation: 6p21

  • A) 8 micromol/L
  • B) 10 micromol/L
  • C) 18 micromol/L
  • D) 40 micromol/L
  • E) 19 micromol/L

Explanation: 18 micromol/L

  • A) 50 days
  • B) 75 days
  • C) 100 days
  • D) 125 days
  • E) 150 days

Explanation: 125 days

Artery involved - A) Vaginal - B) Superior gluteal - C) Inferior gluteal - D) Internal iliac - E) Internal pudendal

Explanation: Internal pudendal Q80. Max score for PUQE - A) 5 - A) 10 - B) 12 - C) 15 - D) 20

Explanation: 15 Q81. Which group of virus causes chicken pox - A) Pox virus - B) Parvo virus - C) Papovavirus - D) Herpes virus - E) Adenovirus

Explanation: Herpes virus

to amniotic fluid volume - A) 12 weeks - B) 16 weeks - C) 18 weeks - D) 20 weeks - E) 26 weeks

Explanation: 18 weeks

Erb's palsy. Which component of the brachial plexus is most likely to be involved? - A) C8, T1 - B) C7, C8, T1 - C) C7, C8 - D) C5, C6 - E) C5

Explanation: C5, C6

Grade of perineal tear - A) 1 - B) 2 - C) 3A - D) 3B - E) 3C

Explanation: 3A Q82. On which day cytotrophoblast develops? - A) Day 4 - B) Day 5 - C) Day 6 - D) Day 7 - E) Day 8

Explanation: Day 8 Q83. Which of the following nerves enters the thigh by passing - A) beneath the inguinal ligament, just medial to the anterior superior iliac - B) spine? - C) Femoral nerve - D) Iliohypogastric nerve - E) Ilioinguinal nerve Genitofemoral nerve Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Explanation: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh Q84. What is the anatomical location of Bartholin’s gland? - A) Deep perineal pouch - B) Superficial perineal pouch - C) Pudendal canal - D) Urogenital diaphragm - E) Ischiorectal fossa

Explanation: Superficial perineal pouch Q85. What is the anatomical space of external urethral sphincter? - A) Superficial inguinal space - B) Deep inguinal space - C) Deep perineal pouch - D) Superficial perineal pouch - E) Ischiorectal fossa

Explanation: Deep perineal pouch Q86. What is the name given to the glycoprotein layer of the oocyte - A) that binds spermatozoa and is essential for the acrosome reaction to take - B) place? - C) Cumulus Oophorus - D) Corona Radiata - E) Plasma Membrane Zona Pellucida Zona Vitelline

Explanation: Zona Pellucida Q87. Muscle of pelvic floor not inserted into perineal body - A) Pubococcygeus - B) lliococcygeus - C) Puborectalis - D) Ischiocavernosus - E) Bulbospongiosus

Explanation: Ischiocavernosus

  • A) Down and Edward syndrome
  • B) Down and Turner syndrome
  • C) Down and Patau syndrome
  • D) Edward and Turner syndrome
  • E) Turner and Patau syndrome

Explanation: Down and Patau syndrome

vessels? - A) Hepatic vein - B) Umbilical vein - C) Umbilical artery - D) Splenic vein - E) Superficial epigastric artery

Explanation: Umbilical vein

  • A) Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism
  • B) Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
  • C) Normogonadotrophic normogonadism
  • D) Infection
  • E) Neoplasm

Explanation: Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

Which receptor does nicotine bind to that affects neurotransmitter in foetus? - A) Dopamine - B) Acetylcholine - C) Adrenaline - D) Noradrenaline - E) Cholinergic

Explanation: Acetylcholine

  • A) Common iliac artery
  • B) Ureter
  • C) Internal iliac vein
  • D) External illiac vein
  • E) Ovarian artery

Explanation: External illiac vein

  • A) 1st pharyngeal arch
  • B) 2nd pharyngeal arch
  • C) 3rd pharyngeal arch
  • D) 4th pharyngeal arch
  • E) 6th pharyngeal arch

Explanation: 3rd pharyngeal arch

breastfeeding. How long should additional contraception be used? - A) Always use additional contraceptive - B) 7 days - C) 14 days - D) 21 days - E) 28 days

Explanation: 7 days

tachycardia. Worsening of sepsis and inflammation in pregnancy due to - A) Up regulation of nitric oxide and PG - B) Up regulation of nitric oxide and down regulation of PG - C) Down regulation of nitric oxide and up regulation of PG - D) Down regulation of nitric oxide and PG - E) Down regulation of nitric oxide

Explanation: Up regulation of nitric oxide and PG

  • A) Autocrine
  • B) Paracrine
  • C) Juxtacrine
  • D) Endocrine
  • E) Exocrine

Explanation: Paracrine

  • A) Cortisol increased by increased unopposed oestrogens
  • B) Cortisol increased by increased circulating progesterones
  • C) Adrenocortocotrophin release suppressed
  • D) Adrenal corticotrophin suppressed by increased unopposed oestrogens
  • E) Placental corticotrophin releasing hormone suppressed

Explanation: Cortisol increased by increased circulating progesterones

anastomosed to - A) Aorta - B) Vesical artery - C) External iliac artery - D) Internal iliac artery - E) Uterine artery

Explanation: Renal vein in recipient is anastomosed with external iliac vein

Q88. How many telomeres are in the cell in metaphase of mitosis? - A) 1 - B) 2 - C) 3 - D) 4 - E) 5

Explanation: Anaphase - 2 Metaphase - 4

Q89. Kolmogorov smirnov (K-S) test is - A) Parametric test compare two related, or dependant samples - B) Non-parametric test compare two related, or dependant samples - C) Parametric test compare two non-related, or independent samples - D) Non-parametric test compare two non-related, or independent samples - E) Non-parametric test compare more than two samples with unpaired data

Explanation: Non-parametric test compare two non-related, or independent samples

Q90. PCOS is linked to - A) High androgen and High SHBG - B) High Androgen and Low SHBG - C) Low Androgen and High SHBG - D) Low Androgen and Low SHBG - E) High SHBG

Explanation: High Androgen and Low SHBG

Q91. A 5-HT4 receptor agonist & 5-HT3 receptor antagonists, used for - A) hyperemesis gravidarum only for short term use - B) Ondansetron - C) Metoclopramide - D) Cyclizine - E) Prochlorperazine Domperidone

Explanation: Metoclopramide has multiple actions It is a dopamine (D2) antagonist, serotonin (5-HT3) antagonist and serotonin (5-HT4) agonist Q92. Woman has history of salpingectomy due to ectopic pregnancy. - A) Her risk of recurrence of ectopic in next pregnancy is - B) 1-3% - C) 5-10% - D) 15-20% - E) 30-40% 50%

Explanation: 15-20%

What is her life time risk of developing Type 2 Diabetes - A) 5-10% - B) 15-20% - C) 25-35% - D) 45-55% - E) 100%

Explanation: 45-55%

Q93. A small square of ECG represents - A) 0.01 sec - B) 0.02 sec - C) 0.03 sec - D) 0.04 sec - E) 0.05 sec

Explanation: 0.04 sec

Q94. Frequency of CTG paper - A) 0.1 cm - B) 1 cm - C) 2 cm - D) 3 cm - E) 5 cm

Explanation: (Page 6) 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. Logout 1 cm/min

Q95. Type of TVS probe used in obese woman - A) High frequency linear probe - B) Low frequency linear probe - C) High frequency curvilinear probe - D) Low frequency curvilinear probe - E) Both high and low frequency curvilinear probe

Explanation: Low frequency curvilinear probe Q96. Muscle of pelvic floor not inserted into perineal body - A) Pubococcygeus - B) lliococcygeus - C) Puborectalis - D) Ischiocavernosus - E) Bulbospongiosus

Explanation: Ischiocavernosus Q97. Which nerve supplies the labia majora? - A) Anterior 1/3rd - Perineal nerve, Posterior 2/3rd - Ilioinguinal nerve & - B) GFN - C) Anterior 1/3rd - Ilioinguinal nerve & GFN, Posterior 2/3rd - Perineal - D) nerve - E) Anterior 1/3rd - Iliohypogastric nerve & GFN, Posterior 2/3rd - Perineal nerve Anterior 1/3rd - Ilioinguinal nerve & Lateral cutaneous nerve, Posterior 2/3rd - Perineal nerve Anterior 1/3rd - Iliohypogastric nerve & Lateral cutaneous nerve, Posterior 2/3rd - Perineal nerve

Explanation: Anterior 1/3rd - Ilioinguinal nerve & GFN, Posterior 2/3rd - Perineal nerve (branch of pudendal nerve)

  • A) B1
  • B) B3
  • C) B6
  • D) B12
  • E) B9

Explanation: Folic acid (B9) Q98. Gene mutation in Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) - A) 6q21 - B) 8p21 - C) 6q22 - D) 6p21 - E) 8q21

Explanation: 90% of CAH cases are caused by mutations of the CYP21 gene on chromosome 6p21

  • A) Macrognathia, Infertile, Low hairline
  • B) Short stature, Low arched palate, Infertile
  • C) Webbed neck, Infertile, Hyperplastic nails
  • D) Short stature, Webbed neck, Infertile
  • E) Infertile, Widely spaced nipples, Prominent nose

Explanation: Short stature, Webbed neck, Infertile Q99. What is the most common karyotype for Edward syndrome - A) 47XY - B) 47XX - C) 46XY - D) 46XX - E) 45XY

Explanation: 47XX Q100. With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of - A) magnetic field strength? - B) Weber - C) Coulomb - D) Tesla - E) Ampere Gauss

Explanation: Tesla Q101. Which complement protein play role in opsonization? - A) C1a - B) C2a - C) C3a - D) C3b - E) C5

Explanation: C3b

antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant & bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is most appropriate advice to give? Reassure that CRS is the result of infection during the first 6 weeks of - A) pregnancy - B) Advise vaccination as soon as possible - C) Advise vaccination after birth and when breast feeding has ceased - D) Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status - E) Advise vaccination prior to 16 weeks gestation

Explanation: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status Q102. What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder? - A) Haemophilia A - B) Haemophilia B - C) Protein C deficiency - D) Protein S deficiency - E) Von Willebrand Disease

Explanation: Von Willebrand Disease

  • A) Hemostasis, proliferation, inflammation, remodelling
  • B) Hemostasis, inflammation, remodelling, proliferation
  • C) Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodelling
  • D) Inflammation, hemostasis, remodelling, proliferation
  • E) Inflammation, hemostasis, proliferation, remodelling

Explanation: Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodelling

hospital with the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum - A) 3 days after commencement - B) Up to first trimester - C) All throughout antenatal period - D) Until discharge from hospital - E) No need of thromboprophylaxis

Explanation: Until discharge from hospital

but ketonuria +++ Next management - A) Give oral fluid - B) Give oral antiemetics - C) Give antiemetics with 5% Dextrose - D) Give IV antiemetics with Vit B1 - E) Give IV antiemetics with 0.9% NaCl

Explanation: Give IV antiemetics with 0.9% NaCl Q103. What si the best investigation to identify extrapelvic disease in - A) patients being considered for exenterative surgery for recurrent - B) gynaecological cancer? - C) Abdominal X-ray - D) Computer tomography (CT) scan - E) Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis and abdomen Positron emission tomography (PET) - CT scan Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis

Explanation: Positron emission tomography (PET) - CT scan

referred by her GP for counselling on effective contraception. What basic examination and investigations should be performed prior to commencing her on the combined hormonal contraception? Pregnancy test and measure BP and BMI Pelvic examination, pregnancy test, measure BP and BMI and check - A) for STI - B) Measure BP and BMI and examine breast and serum cholesterol levels - C) Measure BP and BMI and check for STI - D) Check cervical smear history, measure BP and BMI and offer STI - E) screening and then perform a pregnancy test

Explanation: Check cervical smear history, measure BP and BMI and offer STI screening and then perform a pregnancy test

Desogestrel. What would be considered a missed pill in this woman? - A) Delay in taking the pill by more than 3h - B) Delay in taking the pill by more than 6h - C) Delay in taking the pill by more than 8h - D) Delay in taking the pill by more than 12h - E) Delay in taking the pill by more than 24h

Explanation: Delay in taking the pill by more than 12h Q104. Which antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are mainly found in the - A) cervix? - B) Plasma cells - C) Hofbauer cells - D) Langerhans cells - E) B cells T cells

Explanation: Langerhans cells Q105. When to give prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in - A) HIV patients? - B) CD4 count is <50 cells per mm3 - C) CD4 count is <200 cells per mm3 - D) CD4 count is <250 cells per mm3 - E) CD4 count is <500 cells per mm3 CD4 count is <1500 cells per mm3

Explanation: CD4 count is <200 cells per mm3 Q106. Which test is used to check ovarian reserve in premenopausal - A) women? - B) Estradiol - C) AMH - D) LH - E) FSH GnRH

Explanation: AMH Q107. What percentage of population lack the Rh erythrocyte surface - A) antigen & are considered Rh-negative in UK? - B) 5% - C) 15% - D) 25% - E) 45% 55%

Explanation: 15% Q108. Which option is correct regarding carbon numbers - A) Estrogen 19, Androgen 18, Progesterone 21, Glucocorticoid 20, - B) Mineralocorticoid 21 - C) Estrogen 18, Androgen 20, Progesterone 20, Glucocorticoid 21, - D) Mineralocorticoid 21 - E) Estrogen 18, Androgen 20, Progesterone 21, Glucocorticoid 21, Mineralocorticoid 20 Estrogen 18, Androgen 19, Progesterone 21, Glucocorticoid 21, Mineralocorticoid 21 Estrogen 18, Androgen 21, Progesterone 21, Glucocorticoid 20, Mineralocorticoid 20

Explanation: Estrogen 18, Androgen 19, Progesterone 21, Glucocorticoid 21, Mineralocorticoid 21

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