Mock Exam 02
Final Mock 2
MRCOG Part 1 practice — 131 questions with answers and explanations. Cleaned for readability.
Q1. Frequency of current used in electrosurgery unit is - A) 1KHz to 1.5MHz - B) 100KHz to 1.5MHz - C) 100KHz to 4MHz - D) 400KHz to 9MHz - E) 800KHz to 9MHz
Explanation: To minimize the effects of muscle and neural stimulation, electrosurgical equipment typically operates in the radio frequency (RF) range of 100 kHz to 5 MHz. Operation at higher frequencies also helps minimizing the amount of hydrogen and oxygen generated by electrolysis of water. Q2. What is the contrast dye used in MRI scans? - A) Iodine - B) Barium - C) Thallium - D) Gadolinium - E) Tecnisian
Explanation: Gadolinium Q3. Ovarian reserve is a term that is used to determine the capacity - A) of the ovary to provide egg cells that are capable of fertilization. - B) Determination of ovarian reserve is important in the treatment of infertility. - C) Test for ovarian reserve - D) LH - E) FSH LH/FSH ratio Estradiol Anti mullerian hormone
Explanation: AMH levels can be drawn at any time during the menstrual cycle. It only measures ovarian reserve and does not give an indication of egg quality. One common way to test ovarian reserve is by measuring hormone blood levels. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and estradiol are checked at the beginning of the menstrual cycle. This is usually done on cycle day 3, but it can be drawn from day 1 to 5. These hormone levels can show important information about how the ovaries and pituitary gland are working together.
- A) 6 weeks gestation
- B) 8 weeks gestation
- C) 10 weeks gestation
- D) 14 weeks gestation
- E) 20 weeks gestation
Explanation: Expression of hCG continues throughout pregnancy, with peak levels occurring at 10 weeks of gestation. HCG concentrations decrease to a nadir at 18–20 weeks and remain at that level until term.
- A) 0.1-0.5 mSv
- B) 1-2 mSv
- C) 3-5 mSv
- D) 10-15 mSv
- E) 20-25 mSv
Explanation: 10-15 mSv
Q4. Physiological variation of the menstrual cycle between 21-35 - A) days due to - B) Aberrant LH surge - C) Estrogen fails to produce negative feedback on pituitary - D) Estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary - E) Luteal phase varies in duration by time taken for corpus luteum to degenerate Loss of progesterone secretion
Explanation: The variability in length of the menstrual cycle occurs due to variations in the length of the follicular phase. The main hormone during this phase is estrogen, specifically 17-beta-estradiol. The increase in this hormone occurs by the upregulation of the FSH receptors within the follicle at the beginning of the cycle As levels of 17-beta-estradiol or progesterone increase based on the phases of the menstrual cycle, there is negative feedback back to the anterior pituitary to lower the levels of FSH and LH being produced and subsequently, the levels of 17-beta-estradiol and progesterone produced. An exception to this is during ovulation. In this case, once a critical amount of 17-beta-estradiol is produced, it provides positive feedback to the anterior pituitary to produce increased amounts of FSH and LH The levels of 17-beta-estradiol fall at the end of ovulation. The next phase of the menstrual cycle is the luteal or secretory phase. This phase always occurs from day 14 to day 28 of the cycle.
Q5. Insensible loss of water from skin and lungs in 70 year old healthy - A) woman - B) 100 ml/day - C) 450 ml/day - D) 850 ml/day - E) 1350 ml/day 2600 ml/day
Explanation: Insensible fluid loss is the amount of body fluid lost daily that is not easily measured. Insensible perspiration is the loss of water through the skin which does not occur as perceivable sweat. Q6. Which one of the following best describes the histological type of - A) endometrium soon after ovulation? - B) Decidual reaction - C) Atrophic endometrium - D) Proliferative endometrium - E) Secretory endometrium Arias-Stella phenomenon
Explanation: After ovulation, the secretion of progesterone inhibits the proliferative activity of the endometrium and induces a complex secretory activity starting with the polarisation of glycogen at a subnuclear location followed by its transport via microfilaments to the apical region of the cell. The Golgi apparatus packages the glycogen and various other substances, which become secretory granules and are eventually expelled into the glandular lumen. The secretory changes take place only in an estrogen-primed endometrium. Q7. Monopolar diathermy cause coagulation effect with sparkling to - A) stop the bleeding vessels by Which of the following procedures? - B) Electrosurgical cutting - C) Electrosurgical desiccation - D) Electrosection - E) Fulguration Vaporization
Explanation: - A) Simple diffusion - B) Facilitated diffusion - C) Solvent drag - D) Active transport - E) Pinocytosis
Explanation: Active transport
Echogenic Hypoechoic Anechoic Isoechoic Hyperechoic
Q8. Explanation: - A) Which signaling molecule that stimulate the renin-angiotensin - B) system to regulate the sodium concentration? - C) Angiotensin - D) Aldosterone - E) Bradykinin Norepinephrine Oxytocin
Explanation: pregnancy. By 40 weeks, the concentration of estriol increased to estradiol by how much times? - A) 100 times - B) 50 times - C) 20 times - D) 10 times - E) 5 times
Explanation: Estriol (E3) is the primary estrogen present during pregnancy. It is produced by the placenta, starts to rise in the eighth week of pregnancy, and continues to rise throughout the pregnancy. A sharp increase of E3 occurs approximately 4 weeks prior to the onset of labor. Estriol circulating in maternal blood is quickly cleared out of the body. Each measurement of estriol is a snapshot of what is happening with the placenta and fetus, but there is also natural daily variation in estriol concentrations. Levels of estriol increase 1,000-fold during pregnancy, whereas levels of estradiol and estrone increase 100-fold, and estriol accounts for 90% of the estrogens in the urine of pregnant women. Q9. Which of the following potential mechanism is more likely to - A) cause tissue damage from ultrasound exposure? - B) Cavitation - C) Heat - D) Scatter - E) Fractionation Ionization
Explanation: The period of organogenesis is also considered a particularly sensitive time for thermal insult. Some concern was expressed about the use of spectral Doppler ultrasound in the first trimester given the greater heating potential of this mode as opposed to M-mode, which can provide the necessary diagnostic information in many situations. This is not to suggest that spectral Doppler ultrasound should not be used but rather that the appropriate caution should be taken to use it when needed and only for the appropriate dwell time.
- A) Ovarian Stromal cells
- B) Ovarian Granulosa cells
- C) Ovarian Theca cells
- D) Adrenal secretory cells
- E) Peripheral fat cells
Explanation: Granulosa cells of the ovulatory follicle are the major and virtually only source of estradiol in the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle and secrete estrogens in response to FSH. Before menopause, most estrogens are produced in the ovaries. After menopause, the ovaries no longer produce much estrogen and estrogens mainly come from fat tissue.
Q10. The following is a normal spirometry of a preoperative woman - A) Which lung volume is indicated by the arrows on the spirometry tracing? - B) Residual volume - C) Expiratory reserve volume - D) Inspiratory reserve volume - E) Tidal volume Vital capacity
Explanation: Residual volume
Q11. The most common cause of delay in puberty in males is - A) Constitutional delay in growth - B) Klinefelter's syndrome - C) Noonan's syndrome - D) Primary hypothyroidism - E) Gonadal dysgenesis
Explanation: Delayed puberty in girls occurs when breasts don't develop by age 13 or menstrual periods do not begin by age 16. The most common cause of delayed puberty is a functional delay in production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamic neuronal networks that synergize to initiate the episodic or pulsatile release of the GnRH. GnRH then stimulates pituitary production of the gonadotropins: luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates steroidogenesis in the gonads, and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which stimulates gametogenesis. This delay may be due to individual genetic variations, known as constitutional delay of growth and puberty (CDGP), or other functional defects, such as undernutrition or chronic illness. Q12. What electrolyte imbalance can cause paralytic ileus? - A) Hypernatremia - B) Hyperkalemia - C) Hypocalcemia - D) Hyponatermia - E) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Hypokalemia Q13. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum - A) radiation exposure to the patient during checking tubal patency? - B) Robin tube cannulation - C) Hysterosalpingography - D) Hystero contrast sonography - E) Hysteroscopic tube visualization Laparoscopy and dye intubation
Explanation: Hystero Contrast Sonography (HyCoSy) is an ultrasound procedure intended to diagnose structural defects of the female reproductive system, such as blockage of the Fallopian tubes. It is conducted by forcing an aqueous fluid up (saline) the fallopian tube to provide a contrast medium for ultrasound. While in hysteroalpingography , xray and a contrast material is used. Q14. Which hormone is secreted by the placenta and fetal adrenal - A) gland, promotes maturation of the fetal lungs? - B) Androstenedione - C) Dehydroepiandrosterone - D) Corticosterone - E) Cortisol Cortisone
Explanation: Cortisol secreted by the fetal adrenal cortex stimulates maturation of fetal organs and initiates the cascade of events leading to parturition.
Which of the following complains of pregnancy, you will give her a further investigations? - A) Backache - B) Breast tenderness - C) Nausea - D) Tiredness - E) Dysuria
Explanation: UTIs are more common during pregnancy due to both hormonal changes causing the urinary tract to relax, as well as mechanical changes caused by the enlarging uterus. All pregnant women should be screened for bacteriuria and subsequently treated with antibiotics.
with severe tachypnea. The following blood gases are obtained on room air: pH 7.25 pCO2 7.8 kPa pO2 10 kPa HCO3 18 mEq/L Saturations 84 per cent What does the blood gas show? - A) Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation - B) Metabolic acidosis - C) Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation - D) Respiratory acidosis - E) Mixed metabolic/respiratory Acidosis
Explanation: Mixed metabolic/respiratory Acidosis Q15. What is the major estrogen produced by the placenta during - A) pregnancy? - B) Dehydroepiandrosterone - C) Estradiol - D) Estrone - E) Estriol Ethinylestradiol
Explanation: Estriol Q16. What is the total blood volume in a term newborn? - A) 120 ml/kg - B) 100 ml/kg - C) 85 ml/kg - D) 70 ml/kg - E) 50 ml/kg
Explanation: Neonates 85-90 ml/kg Infants 75-80 ml/kg Children 70-75 ml/kg Adults 65-70 ml/kg Q17. What is the SI unit for the activity of radioactive decay? - A) Gray - B) Sievert - C) Rad - D) Roentgen - E) Becquerel
Explanation: Becquerel Q18. What day of a regular 25-day menstrual cycle is a woman likely to - A) ovulate? - A) 4 - B) 11 - C) 14 - D) 22 - E) 25
Explanation: 11
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the first few days of life. Deficient surfactant synthesis by which of the following cell types may have contributed to the baby's respiratory problems? - A) Alveolar capillary endothelial cells - B) Bronchial mucous cells - C) Bronchial respiratory epithelium - D) Type I pneumocytes - E) Type II pneumocytes
Explanation: Surfactant is synthesized and secreted by Type II alveolar epithelial cells, also called pneumocytes, which differentiate between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation in the human. It is made up of 70% to 80% phospholipids, approximately 10% protein and 10% neutral lipids, mainly cholesterol.
a hill and when she is on the extreme of the hill she becomes little breathless and has paraesthia in her hands. What is the appropriate acid base imbalance? - A) Metabolic acidosis - B) Metabolic alkalosis - C) Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis - D) Respiratory alkalosis - E) Respiratory acidosis
Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis
which transport mechanism? - A) Active transport - B) Endocytosis - C) Exocytosis - D) Facilitated diffusion - E) Passive diffusion
Explanation: Passive diffusion
woman complains of vomiting and severe gas pain. On examination her abdomen is distended but nontender. Bowel sounds are absent. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance? - A) Hypercalcaemia - B) Hyperkalaemia - C) Hypernatraemia - D) Hypokalaemia - E) Hyponatraemia
Explanation: Hypokalaemia Q19. Which is the earliest physical sign of puberty in females? - A) Growth spurt - B) Thelarche - C) Adrenarche - D) Pubarche - E) Menarche
Explanation: The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop. It's normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one. girls go through a growth spurt – from the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.
when the following is present? - A) A pacemaker - B) A hip/knee joint replacement - C) An intracranial aneurysm clip - D) A metallic heart valve - E) A first trimester pregnancy
Explanation: MRI Contraindications Absolute- Pacemaker, Cochlear implants, Intra ocular metallic foreign bodies, Aneurysmal clips Relative- Shell injury or metallic foreign body away from vital organ & major vessels specially after more than 6 months post injury, Pregnancy, Claustrophobia, Uncontrollable movement.
Q20. The shelf life of stored whole blood is approximately - A) 3 weeks - B) 5 weeks - C) 7 weeks - D) 9 weeks - E) 12 weeks
Explanation: Depending on the type of blood bag used the shelf life ranges from 35- 42 days. Fresh Frozen Plasma (plasma separated from a unit of blood within 6-8 hrs of donation and rapidly frozen) is stored in Blood Transfusion centre at -40 degree C or colder. It has a shelf life of one year. Platelets have a shelf life of 3-5 days depending on the type of blood bag used.
Q21. The standard chest X-ray is equivalent to what duration of natural - A) background radiation - B) 3 days - C) 3 weeks - D) 3 months - E) 18 months 5 years
Explanation: To put it simply, the amount of radiation from one adult chest x-ray (0.1 mSv) is about the same as 10 days of natural background radiation that we are all exposed to as part of our daily living. This is also according to the college, but 10 days choice wasn’t in this exam.
Q22. In the kidneys, the largest volume of glucose reabsorption occurs - A) in which of the following? - B) Glomerular capillaries - C) Proximal tubules - D) Loop of henle - E) Distal tubules Collecting duct
Explanation: Proximal tubules Q23. Where in the kidney is potassium completely reabsorbed? - A) Bowman's capsule - B) Distal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle - C) Proximal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle - D) Distal convoluted tubule and Proximal convoluted tubule - E) Collecting duct
Explanation: Proximal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle Q24. What is the most important cation in the extracellular fluid? - A) Ca2+ - B) Cl- l - C) HCO3 - - D) K+ - E) Na+
Explanation: Na+ Within the extracellular fluid, the major cation is sodium and the major anion is chloride. The major cation in the intracellular fluid is potassium Q25. Magnesium is execreted in which of the following nephron - A) segments? - B) Proximal tubule - C) Thin descending loop of Henle - D) Thick ascending loop of Henle - E) Distal tubule Collecting duct
Explanation: The loop of Henle is the site of the majority of magnesium absorption from the kidneys. Approximately 60% to 70% of filtered magnesium is reabsorbed in the cortical thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Q26. Where in the kidney is the majority of magnesium reabsorbed? - A) Bowman's capsule - B) Collecting duct - C) Distal convoluted tubule - D) Loop of Henle - E) Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation: Loop of Henle
The inhibitory effect of oxygen on fermentation - A) The chloride shift that maintains electrical neutrality - B) The dissociation constant for the bicarbonate buffer system - C) The increased capacity for deoxygenated blood to carry CO2 - D) The reduction in affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in active tissues in - E) response to a drop in pH caused by increased CO2 production
Explanation: The Haldane effect is the ability of deoxygenated hemoglobin to carry more carbon dioxide (CO2) than in the oxygenated state. Q27. Which organelles do type II pneumocytes utilize for surfactant - A) release? - B) Golgi complex - C) Lysosomes - D) Endosomes - E) Lamellar Bodies Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation: Pulmonary surfactant (PS) is an essential complex of lipids and specific proteins synthesized in alveolar type II pneumocytes, where it is assembled and stored intracellularly as multilayered organelles known as lamellar bodies (LBs)
treated with a diagnosis of small lung cancer presents with excessive polyuria and depression. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance? - A) Hypernatremia - B) Hyponatremia - C) Hyperkalemia - D) Hypokalemia - E) Hypercalcemia
Explanation: Incidental hypercalcemia may be the first manifestation of an undiagnosed malignancy. Although having symptoms of hypercalcemia is uncommon, symptoms can include: More frequent urination and thirst. Fatigue, bone pain, headaches, nausea, vomiting, constipation, decrease in appetite, forgetfulness, lethargy, depression, memory loss or irritability, muscle aches, weakness, cramping and/or twitches. Q28. What percentage of total body water is intracellular? - A) 66% - B) 40% - C) 33% - D) 20% - E) 10%
Explanation: This represents approximately two-thirds of the total body water volume and 40% of total body weight.
- A) Chloride
- B) Potassium
- C) Hydrogen
- D) Sodium
- E) Calcium
Explanation: In the basolateral membrane of the thyroid cell, the sodium/iodine symporter (NIS) transfers iodide into the thyroid across a concentration gradient 20-50 times that of plasma by active transport. Q29. What type of Laser is Neodymium:YAG laser? - A) Semiconductor laser - B) Excimer Laser - C) Dye Laser - D) Gas Laser - E) Solid Laser
Explanation: Solid Laser An Nd:YAG laser is a solid state laser capable of producing a nearinfrared wavelength that penetrates deep into the skin and is readily absorbed by hemoglobin and melanin chromophores.
fraction (EF) of 28% presents for a caesarean section. What does EF 28% mean? 72% of the total amount of blood pumped into the ventricles prior to systole 72% of the total amount of blood left over in the ventricles following systole 28% of the total amount of blood left over in the ventricles following - A) systole - B) 28% the total amount of blood pumped by the heart during a 1- minute - C) period - D) 72% of the total amount of blood pumped by the heart during a 1- - E) minute period
Explanation: A normal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ranges from 55% to 70%. An LVEF of 65%, for example, means that 65% of the total amount of blood in the left ventricle is pumped out with each heartbeat.
She becomes tachypnic. Which is the most likely acid-base disorder in this patient? - A) Metabolic acidosis - B) Metabolic alkalosis - C) Mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis - D) Respiratory acidosis - E) Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Vomiting results in the loss of hydrochloric acid (hydrogen and chloride ions) with the stomach contents. In the hospital setting this can commonly occur from nasogastric suction tubes. Severe vomiting also causes loss of potassium (hypokalemia) and sodium (hyponatremia). The kidneys compensate for these losses by retaining sodium in the collecting ducts at the expense of hydrogen ions (sparing sodium/potassium pumps to prevent further loss of potassium),leading to metabolic alkalosis. Q30. Which of the following is the main cellular origin of clotting factor - A) VIII (antihemophilic factor A)? - B) Hepatocytes(liver) - C) Histiocytes - D) Megakaryocytes - E) Plasma cells Vascular Endothelium
Explanation: Recently, three studies addressed the cellular origin of factor VIII synthesis in the liver. The overall conclusion was that liver sinusoid endothelial cells (LSEC), not hepatocytes, are the main cellular source of hepatic factor VIII. Q31. What of the following is the major buffer in urine? - A) Bicarbonate - B) Phosphate - C) Ammonia - D) Calcium carbonate - E) Potassium chloride
Explanation: Phosphate is the most predominant urine buffer Q32. Where in the kidney is the majority of bicarbonate reabsorbed? - A) Bowman's capsule - B) Collecting duct - C) Distal convoluted tubule - D) Loop of Henle - E) Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation: Proximal convoluted tubule
clinic with increased sweating on her face. On examination there are no remarkable findings. Which of the following endocrine glands is related to increased activity of sweat glands during pregnancy? - A) Adrenal cortex - B) Placenta - C) Pancreas - D) Parathyroid - E) Thyroid
Explanation: Thyroid Q33. What kind of epithelium lines the ectocervix? - A) Columnar - B) Statified Squamous, non keratinized - C) Statified Squamous, keratinised - D) Cuboidal - E) Transitional
Explanation: Statified Squamous, non keratinized Q34. Which enzyme found in red blood cells which buffers blood CO2? - A) Cytochrome-b5 reductase - B) 5-nucleotidase - C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase - D) Carbonic anhydrase - E) Pyruvate kinase
Explanation: Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that balances the pH of the blood and enables the breathing out of carbon dioxide. In red blood cells carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction to convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid, which further breaks down into bicarbonate ions and protons (H+).
physiological finding results mainly from - A) Increased cardiac output - B) Increased plasma volume - C) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance - D) Constriction of the afferent arteriole - E) Compression of the renal capsule
Explanation: Both increased renal blood flow and decreased oncotic pressure due to plasma volume expansion contribute to higher glomerular filtration rate
hematological changes early begin? - A) 4 weeks - B) 8 weeks - C) 10 weeks - D) 12 weeks - E) 14 weeks
Explanation: The systemic vasodilation of pregnancy occurs as early as at 5 weeks and therefore precedes full placentation and the complete development of the uteroplacental circulation.
Which of the following ECG findings during pregnancy should be considered normal? - A) Prolonged QT interval - B) Absent QRS complex - C) T-wave flattening in lead II - D) Q-wave in lead III and aVF - E) Right axis deviation due to elevated diaphragm
Explanation: During pregnancy. ECG changes in normal pregnancy include a reduction in the mean values of PR interval, sinus tachycardia, left axis deviation, inverted or flattened T waves and a Q wave in lead DIII.
vessels?
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Explanation: Umbilical vein
the following? - A) Estrogen precursor - B) Methylation of estrogen receptors gene - C) Decreased estrogen receptors - D) Increased sex hormone binding globulins - E) Stimulation of the estrogen positive feedback in the luteal phase
Explanation: Progesterone decreases the target organs response to estrogen by decreasing the number of receptors the organ has for estrogen.
previous spontaneous abortions at the first trimester. She has had one live birth at term with the birth of a live baby at 26 weeks who died within a few minutes. Which one of the following correctly expresses her gravidity and parity? - A) Gravida 4 Para 1 + 2 - B) Gravida 4 Para 2 + 2 - C) Gravida 5 Para 1 + 2 - D) Gravida 5 Para 2 + 2 - E) Gravida 5 Para 1 + 3
Explanation: Gravidity is the total number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome. Parity is the total number of pregnancies carried over the threshold of viability (24+0 in the UK). Examples [Macleod’s 2005, p.212]: Patient is currently pregnant; had two previous deliveries = G3 P2 Patient is not pregnant, had one previous delivery = G1 P1 Patient is currently pregnant, had one previous delivery and one previous miscarriage = G3 P1+1 (the +1 refers to a pregnancy not carried to 24+0). Patient is not currently pregnant, had a live birth and a stillbirth (death of fetus after 24+0) = G2 P2 Patient is not pregnant, had a twin pregnancy resulting in two live births = G1 P1
Q35. Carbon dioxide gas laser is better preferred for the removal of - A) endometriotic implants as - B) It does not capable to vaporize tissue - C) It penetrates deeply into tissue - D) It has a minimal lateral thermal tissue damage - E) It is less transmitted in soft tissue that contains water It produces an invisible beam and does not affect the one who use it
Explanation: The CO2 laser is the most versatile and is extremely safe because of its limited depth of penetration (0.1–0.5 mm) and lateral thermal damage (0.5 mm). This allows use of the CO2 laser in delicate areas where cautery would be unsafe, such as the bladder, lateral side wall near the ureter, and bowel serosa. Besides vaporisation, the CO2 laser can be used for excision or incision by increasing the power density. Disadvantages of the CO2 laser include focusing of the helium–neon beam as well as production of smoke referred to as “plume,” which needs frequent evacuation to allow adequate visualization of the target. The Nd:YAG wave is readily absorbed by tissue with a deep penetration of 3–4 mm. The energy emitted by the Nd:YAG laser is poorly absorbed by fluids and thus makes it an excellent tool for hysteroscopic surgery.
Q36. Sudden disorientation of a women following delivery now on 35% - A) Oxygen - B) ABGs showed - C) Ph 7.2 - D) Spo2 13.4 - E) Spco2 8.4 Base excess -2.4 Hco3 27 What is the metabolic disorder? Respiratory Acidosis Respiratory Alkalosis Metabolic Acidosis Metabolic Alkalosis None of above
Explanation: Respiratory Acidosis
Q37. After how many hours of LH surge ovulation occur? - A) 16 hr - B) 24 hr - C) 36 hr - D) 48 hr - E) 72 hr
Explanation: Ovulation is considered to occur 28-36 hours after the beginning of the LH rise or 8-20 hours after the LH peak Q38. Which hormone causes rupture of graafian follicle and release of - A) estrogen and progesterone? - B) LH - C) FSH - D) TSH - E) GnRH HCG
Explanation: Leutenizing hormone or LH is produced by the pituitary gland in the brain. It stimulates the ovaries to produce oestrogen and progesterone. It triggers ovulation, which is the release of a mature ovum from the ovary and it promotes the development of corpus luteum by rupture of Graafian follicle. Q39. Which hormone prevent regression of corpus luteum? - A) HCG - B) Progesterone - C) Estrogen - D) HPL - E) FSH
Explanation: HCG Q40. Which enzyme is present in granulosa cells but not in theca cells? - A) Aromatase - B) 17 B hydroxylase - C) 11 hydroxylase - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Isolated human theca cells do not produce any appreciable amounts of estrogen. Q41. GFR is maximum at which gestation - A) 32 weeks - B) 36 weeks - C) 18 weeks - D) 11 weeks - E) 5 weeks
Explanation: GFR peaks approximately at 16 weeks but maximum in the third trimester.
- A) Cortisol
- B) Insulin
- C) Aldosterone
- D) Androgen
- E) MSH
Explanation: The increased levels of hormones such as estrogen, progesterone, and MSH in the third trimester are likely to trigger the symptoms of melasma in pregnant women.
- A) Ectocervix
- B) Endocervix
- C) Skene gland
- D) Bartholin’s gland
- E) Transudate from vagina
Explanation: Transudate from vagina Q42. What is the change in plasma volume during pregnancy? - A) Increase 20 to 30% - B) Increase 30 to 50% - C) Increase 60 to 70% - D) Increase 50 to 70% - E) None of above
Explanation: Increase 30 to 50% Q43. Which radiotherapy need vaginal devise insertion - A) X-ray - B) MRI - C) Brachytherapy - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Brachytherapy Brachytherapy is a form of radiotherapy where a sealed radiation source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment. Q44. Which modality you will use to check growing thyroid nodule in - A) pregnancy? - B) Technetium scan - C) Radio isotope - D) Ultrasound - E) CT MRI
Explanation: The comprehensive evaluation of thyroid nodules during pregnancy includes a medical history, physical examination, ultrasound assessment, and (when indicated) an ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration biopsy. Q45. What is the threshold for ultrasound frequency? - A) 10 KHz - B) 20 KHz - C) 40 KHz - D) 50 KHz - E) None of above
Explanation: 20 KHz
wave is called? Amplitude Acoustic impedence Frequency Resolution Wave length
Q46. Explanation: - A) What is the single best description for the histological appearance - B) of the secretory endometrium? - C) Simple columnar - D) Simple columnar with subnuclear vacuolation - E) Stratified columnar Stratified cuboidal Simple cuboidal epithelium
Explanation: Simple columnar with subnuclear vacuolation Q47. What is the frequency used in Transabdominal Ultrasonography? - A) 7-10 MHZ - B) 10-15 MHZ - C) 15-20 MHZ - D) 3-5 MHZ - E) >20 MHZ
Explanation: Transabdominal transducers commonly use 3.5 to 5 MHz, and transvaginal transducers use 5.0 MHz and higher
What is her category of BMI? - A) Normal - B) Obesity Class I - C) Obesity Class II - D) Obesity Class III - E) Morbid obesity
Explanation: - A) 9.5 g/dl - B) 10 g/dl - C) 10.5 g/dl - D) 11 g/dl - E) 11.5 g/dl
Explanation: According to the classification of World Health Organization (WHO), pregnant women with hemoglobin levels less than 11.0 g/dl in the first trimester and less than 10.5 g/dl in the second & third trimester are considered as anemia.
cheeks & face? - A) Melasma - B) Linea alba - C) Linea nigra - D) Stria gravidarum - E) Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation: Melasma Q48. Which clotting factor does not rise in pregnancy? - A) VII & VIII - B) VIII & IX - C) XI & XIII - D) XII & IX - E) II & XI
Explanation: This chart mentioned by College. So follow this only. Q49. Which type of electrosurgical circuits is safest in theatres? - A) Grounded - B) Patient is attached to pad - C) Isolation - D) On parallel - E) On series
Explanation: Isolation
diathermy plate. What is the mechanism of injury ? - A) Inadequate current used - B) Low frequency current focused on small area - C) High frequency current focused on small area - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: High frequency current focused on small area Q50. Which of the following statements best describe Tidal volume ? - A) The normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and - B) exhalation (in and out) when extra effort is not applied - C) The volume in the lungs at maximal inflation - D) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation - E) The maximal volume that can be inhaled from the end inspiratory level The maximum volume of air inhaled from the point of maximum expiration
Explanation: Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle. Q51. Which of the following is responsible for the striae during - A) pregnancy? - B) Melatonin - C) Cortisol - D) Estrogen - E) MSH Aldosterone
Explanation: Cortisol
- A) Simple diffusion
- B) Facilitated diffusion
- C) Active transport
- D) Passive transport
- E) Endocytosis
Explanation: Active transport Q52. With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of - A) strength of magnetic field? - B) Weber - C) Tesla - D) Coulomb - E) Ampere Gauss
Explanation: Tesla Q53. What is the major estrogen found in menopause? - A) Estradiol - B) Estriol - C) Estrone - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Estrone Q54. Which one of the following best describes the histological type of - A) endometrium that is with enlarged and tortous glands? - B) Decidual reaction - C) Atrophic endometrium - D) Proliferative endometrium - E) Secretory endometrium Arias-Stella phenomenon
Explanation: During the proliferative phase, uterine glands appear long due to estrogen secretion by the ovaries. During the secretory phase, the uterine glands become very coiled with wide lumens and produce a glycogen-rich secretion. This change corresponds with an increase in blood flow to spiral arteries due to increased progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum.
pregnancy? First trimester
(Page 4) 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. - A) 115. - B) Second trimester - C) Third trimester - D) During delivery - E) After delivery
Explanation: Telogen effluvium is the excessive shedding of hair that occurs one to five months following pregnancy. Hair loss during pregnancy is not uncommon, as it affects somewhere between 40 to 50% of women; but like most changes during pregnancy, it is temporary. The hair loss usually peaks 3-4 months after delivery
tissue medium: absorption, scattering, reflection and - A) Cavitation - B) Reflection - C) Refraction - D) Attenuation - E) Amplitude
Explanation: Ultrasound waves, when they strike a medium, cause expansion and compression of the medium. Ultrasound waves interact with tissue in four basic manners. Those interactions are: Reflection Scattering Refraction Attenuation
undergoing radiotherapy by impact of gammaemitting isotopes containing Casieum137 on her vagina. This type of therapy is best described by which of the following terms? - A) Adjuvant - B) Neoadjuvant - C) Radical - D) Teletherapy - E) Brachytherapy
Explanation: Brachytherapy
- A) 28 weeks
- B) 34 weeks
- C) 36 weeks
- D) at birth
- E) 7 days post natal
Explanation: Adult haemoglobin: Synthesis at 28-30weeks. Functional at birth. At around 6 months of life fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is solely replaced by adult haemoglobin.
- A) Collecting ducts
- B) Distal convoluted tubules
- C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
- D) Loop of Henle
- E) Proximal convoluted tubules
Explanation: Renin is an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. Take care that The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA), consisting of the glomerular afferent and efferent arterioles and the specialized tubular epithelial cells called the macula densa, juxtaglomerular cells are also known as granular cells. Q55. Which cells produce mullerian inhibiting substance in fetal testis? - A) Interstitial cells of leydig - B) Interstitial macrophages - C) Sertoli cells - D) Theca cells - E) Granulosa cells
Explanation: Sertoli cells secrete the following substances: anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) — secreted during the early stages of fetal life. inhibin and activins — secreted after puberty, and work together to regulate FSH secretion. androgen binding protein (also called testosterone binding globulin) — increases testosterone concentration in the seminiferous tubules to lightly stimulate spermatogenesis. estradiol — aromatase from Sertoli cells convert testosterone to 17 beta estradiol to direct spermatogenesis ETS Related Molecule or ERM transcription factor — needed for maintenance of the spermatogonial stem cell in the adult testis. transferrin — a blood plasma protein for iron ion delivery Q56. What hormone secreted by placenta leading to gestational - A) diabetes insipidus? - B) Relaxin - C) Estriol - D) Oxytocin - E) Vasopressinase Inhibin
Explanation: Vasopressinase is an enzyme expressed by placental trophoblasts during pregnancy, which metabolises AVP It tends to occur at the end of the second trimester or during the third trimester. GDI is usually transient with spontaneous resolution 4– 6 weeks after delivery. Excessive vasopressinase activity has been implicated in the pathophysiology of GDI.
- A) Theca cells
- B) Granulosa cells
- C) Cumulus oophorus
- D) Corpus luteum
- E) Leydig cells
Explanation: Granulosa cells primarily express FSH receptors. LH stimulates theca cells to produce androstenedione from cholesterol. Androstenedione is taken up by granulosa cells of the follicle to provide substrate for the increasing demand for estrogen. After ovulation the granulosa cells turn into granulosa lutein cells that produce progesterone. Granulosa cells also secrete inhibin and activin hormones.
- A) Leptin
- B) Relaxin
- C) Estrogen
- D) Progesterone
- E) HCG
Explanation: The hormone leptin is produced by fat cells and is secreted into our bloodstream. Leptin reduces a person's appetite by acting on specific centres of their brain to reduce their urge to eat. It also seems to control how the body manages its store of body fat.
Which of following tissues is most radioresistant? - A) Intestinal epithelium - B) Cerebral neurone - C) Respiratory epithelium - D) Bone marrow - E) Skin
Explanation: It has been found that the cell radiosensitivity is directly proportional to the rate of division and inversely proportional to the degree of cell differentiation. The cells in the bone marrow are undifferentiated, well nourished, dividing quickly and highly active metabolically and hence are the most radiosensitive cells of the body. The differentiated fixed postmitotic cells are the most radioresistant. This class includes the long-lived neurons, skeletal muscle cells and erythrocytes.
- A) Proximal tubule
- B) Loop of henle
- C) Distal convoluted tubules
- D) Collecting duct
- E) JG cell
Explanation: Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) acting at V2 receptors enhances water reabsorption by increasing aquaporin-2 channels in the renal collecting duct.
- A) MRI
- B) CT Scan
- C) X-ray
- D) USG
- E) PET Scan
Explanation: Piezoelectric crystals can convert electric currents into ultrasound waves.
0.8g/dl/ml 1.2 g/dl/ml 1.5g/dl/ml 110g/l
Explanation: Routine iron supplementation for all women in pregnancy is not recommended in the UK The dose of parenteral iron should be calculated on the basis of prepregnancy weight, aiming for a target Hb of 110 g/l
Q57. HSG is done on what day of cycle? - A) 1-5 - B) 6-12 - C) 13-21 - D) 22-28 - E) 28-32
Explanation: 6-12 It is done in first half of the cycle and preferably when bleeding stop.
Q58. Cauterization of large area with appearance of smoke? - A) Carbonization - B) Desiccation - C) Coagulation - D) Vaporization - E) Fulguration
Explanation: Desiccation: Direct contact of the instrument and the tissue causes dehydration and protein denaturation. Continued application of heat with no or minimal tissue penetration results in superficial carbonization (char). Vaporization: No direct contact, electrode is held at the tissue surface; the high heat generated by the current vaporizes tissue. Since the cells "explode," no char is produced. Fulguration: No direct contact, electrode is held a bit further away than in vaporization; electrical current (sparks) arcs between the electrode tip and the nearby tissue, which causes it to char.
Q59. Cardiac output after delivery - A) <20% - B) 20-40% - C) 40-60% - D) 60-80%
Answer: 80%
Explanation: Following delivery there is an immediate rise in cardiac output due to relief of the inferior vena cava obstruction and contraction of the uterus, which empties blood into the systemic circulation. Cardiac output increases by 60–80%, followed by a rapid decline to pre-labour values within about one hour of delivery.
Q60. IgG passing through the placenta - A) Active transport - B) Passive transport - C) Phagocytosis - D) Diffusion - E) Pinocytosis
Explanation: Pinocytosis Q61. Most common intracellular cation - A) Na+ - B) K+ - C) HCO3- - D) NH4+ - E) None of above
Explanation: K+
- A) 1st trimester
- B) 2nd trimester
- C) 3rd trimester
- D) On labor
- E) After delivery
Explanation: Human placental lactogen (hPL) is a placental protein hormone secreted by the synytiotrophoblast that rises steadily and peaks at 34 weeks of gestation. Its structure and function are similar to those of human growth hormone. It modifies the metabolic state of the mother during pregnancy to facilitate the energy supply of the fetus. hPL has anti-insulin properties.
Q62. Fetal cardiac output to fetal kidney - A) 2-3% - B) 10-20% - C) 30-40% - D) 70-80% - E) >90%
Explanation: Unlike the adult (where about 20% of cardiac output reaches the kidneys), only 2–3% of fetal cardiac output goes to the kidneys; fetal fluid and electrolyte balance is mainly under the control of the placenta rather than the kidney. Maternal cardiac output distribution
Q63. Placenta previa early confirmed at what gestational age? - A) 20 weeks - B) 24 weeks - C) 28 weeks - D) 32 weeks - E) None of above
Explanation: The timing of a confirmatory ultrasound examination in the third trimester has varied between 32 and 36 weeks of gestation.
Q64. Patient on postpartum and is breast feeding, have CT scan due - A) to some reason, regarding breast feeding you will advise - B) Stop breastfeeding - C) Stop breastfeeding for 24 hours - D) Encourage breast feeding normally - E) Encourage breast feeding but send baby’s UCE after 24 hours None of above
Explanation: If the patient is breastfeeding: For all non-contrast exams, excluding Nuclear Medicine exams, routine imaging proceeds. For all IV iodinated contrast and gadolinium, contrast administration to the mother is considered safe for both the baby and nursing mother. Patients who have a Tc-99m nuclear medicine procedure should not let their infants' breastfeed for 72 hours after the exam. During this 72 hour period they can pump the breast milk and store it. This milk can be given to the infant after it has been stored for 72 hours.
Q65. In pregnancy normal physiological changes - A) Inc plasma volume, dec haematocrit, inc blood volume - B) Inc plasma volume, inc haematocrit, inc blood volume - C) Inc plasma volume, inc haematocrit, dec blood volume - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Inc plasma volume, dec haematocrit, inc blood volume
Q66. Radiation exposure with ventilation perfusion scan - A) 3 days - B) 3 months - C) 6 months - D) 12 months - E) 24 months
Explanation: 6 months Q67. Which probe frequency should be used for ultrasound imaging of - A) obese individuals? - B) High frequency curvilinear - C) Low frequency curvilinear probe - D) High frequency linear probe - E) Low frequency linear probe None of above
Explanation: Low frequency curvilinear probe A lower-frequency transducer (e.g. 1 MHz), as opposed to the traditional 2-to 5-MHz abdominal probe, can be combined with beam-forming algorithms to allow for better modeling in overweight patients
capillary wedge pressure decrease in pregnancy? - A) 3% - B) 30% - C) 60% - D) 90% - E) None of above
Explanation: 30%
Q68. Hemorrhagic luteal cyst most vascularized portion? - A) Theca - B) Cumulus oophorus - C) Mural granulosa - D) Basal lamina - E) All of above
Explanation: Theca
Q69. CTPA at 31 weeks radiation exposure to breast tissue? - A) 20 mGy - B) 30 mGy - C) 100 mGy - D) 150 mGy
- E) (Page 5)* 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. Logout 250 mGy
Explanation: The radiation exposure to maternal breast tissue is high 15mSV from a CTPA (compared to 2.0 mSV with a V/Q scan) Although V/Q scan fetal radiation exposure is greater than CTPA
Q70. Spinal hypotension caused by - A) Block of dorsal root ganglion - B) Block of preganglionic autonomic - C) Ischemia of vasomotor center - D) Venoconstriction - E) None of above
Explanation: Hypotension is common during spinal anesthesia (SA) and is caused by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and/or cardiac output (CO), due to the blockade of the cardiac sympathetic nerve.
Q71. Regarding diathermy, SI unit of power - A) Grey - B) Sievert - C) Joule - D) Watt - E) None of above
Explanation: Watt
Q72. Epiphyseal closure in females at puberty due to - A) Estradiol - B) Testosterone - C) Estrone - D) Progesterone - E) FSH
Explanation: Estradiol
Q73. Property of tissue to reflect ultrasound waves? - A) Acoustic impedance - B) Frequency - C) Resistance - D) Porosity - E) All of above
Explanation: Acoustic impedance (Z) is a physical property of tissue. It describes how much resistance an ultrasound beam encounters as it passes through a tissue. Acoustic impedance depends on: the density of the tissue (d, in kg/m3) the speed of the sound wave (c, in m/s)
Q74. Postnatal 4 days what happens to kidney volume in fetus - A) No change - B) 2 fold inc - C) 2 fold dec - D) 5 fold inc - E) 5 fold dec
Explanation: Analysis of the normal cases revealed a changing growth rate during year 1 of life estimated to be 3.1 mm. per month at birth, decreasing gradually during the first 7 months of life to 0.25 mm. per month and remaining constant thereafter. Q75. Maximum level of progesterone at - A) First trimester - B) Second trimester - C) At term - D) During labour - E) After delivery
Explanation: Like estrogen, progesterone suppresses FSH and LH. It also inhibits uterine contractions, protecting the fetus from preterm birth. This hormone decreases in late gestation, allowing uterine contractions to intensify and eventually progress to true labor.
- A) Angiotensin 1
- B) Angiotensin 2
- C) Renin
- D) Cortisol
- E) None of above
Explanation: The major factors stimulating aldosterone production and release by the zona glomerulosa are angiotensin II and the serum potassium concentration. Q76. What type of resolution is the most important in ultrasound? - A) Temporal - B) Lateral - C) Spatial - D) Axial - E) All of above
Explanation: Axial resolution is the ability to see the two structures that are side by side as separate and distinct when parallel to the beam. So a higher frequency and short pulse length will provide a better axial image.
- A) Monopolar diathermy
- B) Bipolar diathermy
- C) Tripolar diathermy
- D) All of above
- E) None of above
Explanation: A small probe with an electric current running through it is used to burn or destroy the tissue. A grounding pad is placed on the body (usually the thigh) before the surgery to protect the person from the harmful effects of the electricity. Q77. What is the upper limit of post void urine in a 65 yrs. old? - A) 10 ml - B) 50 ml - C) 100 ml - D) 150 ml - E) 200 ml
Explanation: volume < 50 mL is normal; < 100 mL is usually acceptable in patients > 65 but abnormal in younger patients. Other tests (eg, urinalysis, blood tests, ultrasonography, urodynamic testing, cystoscopy, cystography) are done based on clinical findings.
- A) 13 weeks
- B) 26 weeks
- C) 30 weeks
- D) 34 weeks
- E) All of above
Explanation: 34 weeks
Q78. Post NVD she’s able to breast feed easily what physiological - A) event happen during pregnancy to make her able to breast feed? - B) Ductal dilatation post natal - C) Stromal hypertrophy - D) Stromal hyperplasia during pregnancy - E) Ductal proliferation during pregnancy
Explanation: During pregnancy , the breast undergoes both anatomic and physiologic changes to prepare for lactation. During the first trimester, the ductal system expands and branches out into the adipose tissue in response to the increase of estrogen. Elevated levels of estrogen also cause a decrease in adipose tissue and ductal proliferation and elongation.
Q79. Cardiac output in second stage of labour? - A) 10% - B) 25% - C) 40% - D) 70-80% - E) >90%
Explanation: The maximum cardiac output associated with pregnancy occurs during labor and immediately after delivery, with increases of 60% to 80% above levels seen before onset of labor.
Q80. Day 7 of menstrual cycle which protein inc? - A) Activin - B) Inhibin A - C) Inhibin B - D) FSH - E) All of above
Explanation: Q81. Cut section in ovary, identify the structure marked A? - A) Dominant follicle - B) Subordinate follicle - C) Mature follicle - D) Corpus albicans - E) Corpus luteum
Explanation: