Mock Exam 04
Final Mock 4
MRCOG Part 1 practice — 142 questions with answers and explanations. Cleaned for readability.
Q1. Which one of the following tocolytic drug is a competitive oxytocin - A) receptor antagonist? - B) Ritodrine - C) Terbutaline - D) Atosiban - E) Nifedipine Indomethacin
Explanation: Atosiban Q2. Midazolam is an effective anxiolytic drug, used for preoperative - A) sedation. - B) Which receptor is responsible for its action? - C) 5-HT 1 - D) 5-HT 3 - E) D 2 GABA N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)
Explanation: GABA Q3. Mifepristone is a drug used in medical termination of pregnancy. - A) What is the mifepristone mode of action? - B) Estrogen agonist - C) Estrogen antagonist - D) Oxytocin antagonist - E) Progesterone agonist Progesterone antagonist
Explanation: Progesterone antagonist Q4. Misoprostol is a commonly used drug in the medical treatment of - A) miscarriage. - B) What type of drug is misoprostol? - C) Cyclooxygenase inhibitor - D) Prostaglandin f 2α - E) Progesterone antagonist Prostaglandin E 2 Prostaglandin E 1
Explanation: Dinoprostone is a formulation of PGE2, while misoprostol is a synthetic analog of PGE1.
- A) Placental cholinesterase
- B) High protein binding
- C) Elongated molecular configuration
- D) High degree of ionization
- E) Insufficient maternal concentration
Explanation: Almost all anaesthetic drugs cross the placenta easily, with the exception of the neuromuscular blocking agents. Neuromuscular blocking agents are large, poorly lipid soluble, and highly ionized molecules. They cross the placenta very slowly and pose no significant clinical problems to the neonate.
- A) K + channel blockers
- B) Na + channel blockers
- C) Ca ++ channel blockers
- D) Angiotensin receptor blockers
- E) Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Explanation: Ca ++ channel blockers Q5. Which of the following most accurately describes the mode of - A) action of letrozole? - B) Progesterone-receptor antagonist - C) Estrogen-receptor antagonist - D) Aromatase inhibitor - E) Selective estrogen receptor modulator Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Explanation: Aromatase inhibitor Q6. Which antiemetic drug can cause uncontrolled muscle - A) movements? - B) Meclizine - C) Scopolamine - D) Ondansetron - E) Granisteron Metoclopramide
Explanation: Metoclopramide Q7. Which is non-ergot dopamine agonist drug used to treat - A) hyperprolactinemia? - B) Cabergoline - C) Quinagolide - D) Quinacrine - E) Quetiapine Terguride
Explanation: Quinagolide, the active ingredient of NORPROLAC, is a selective dopamine D2-receptor agonist not belonging to the chemical classes of ergot or ergoline compounds. Owing to its dopaminergic action, the drug exerts a strong inhibitory effect on the secretion of the anterior pituitary hormone prolactin, but does not reduce normal levels of other pituitary hormones Ergot-derived dopamine agonists are a group of medicines consisting of bromocriptine, cabergoline, dihydroergocryptine, lisuride and pergolide. Q8. What drug can be given to reverse myelosuppression in - A) methotrexate toxicity? - B) Folic acid - C) Vitamin B 12 - D) Pyridoxine - E) Thymidine Folinic acid
Explanation: There are three antidotes that have been used for MTX toxicity: leucovorin, thymidine and glucarpidase. Leucovorin (folinic acid) is the reduced and active form of folic acid. For more than 30 years, leucovorin rescue has been a cornerstone. Q9. When should the prophylactic dose of low molecular weight - A) heparin (LMWH) be stopped before regional analgesia? - B) 6 hours - C) 12 hours - D) 24 hours - E) 48 hours 72 hours
Explanation: 12 hours
evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole at what stage? - A) A declining of hCG titers - B) A plateau of hCG titers - C) HCG titers start to decline - D) As soon as possible after evacuation - E) Combined oral contraceptive pills cannot be used at all
Explanation: The new guidelines states that you can start cop as soon as possible after evacuation. Q10. Warfarin blocks post ribosomal glutamic acid carboxylation of the - A) precursors of which clotting factors? - B) Factor I - C) Factor II - D) Factor III - E) Factor V Factor XI
Explanation: Warfarin is a synthetic anticoagulant. Warfarin inhibits the regeneration of vitamin K1 epoxide and so the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors, which include Factors II, VII, IX and X, and the anticoagulant proteins C and S. This inhibition results in a sequential depression of Factors VII, IX, X and II activities. Vitamin K is an essential cofactor for the post ribosomal synthesis of the vitamin K dependent clotting factors. The vitamin promotes the biosynthesis of gamma-carboxyglutamic acid residues in these proteins which are essential for biological activity.
treatment for acne and is prescribed antibiotic by her general practitioner (GP). She goes on to deliver a healthy baby girl at term. Two years later her daughter is noted to have unusually gray discoloration of teeth. Which treatment for acne did her GP prescribed for acne? - A) Chloramphenicol - B) Sulphonamide - C) Quinolone - D) Aminoglycosides - E) Tetracycline
Explanation: Tetracycline
- A) Gonadotropin analogue
- B) Androgenic steroid
- C) Estrogenic steroid
- D) Progestogenic steroid
- E) Selective estrogen receptor modulator
Explanation: Selective estrogen receptor modulator Q11. Mechanism of action of Neostigmine is - A) Choline ester - B) Cholinomimetic - C) Muscarinic antagonist - D) Anticholinesterase - E) Nicotinic antagonist
Explanation: Neostigmine is used as an antidote for anticholinergic intoxication. It is also used as a treatment for myasthenia gravis, treatment (antidote) for neuromuscular blockade, and treatment for ileus. Q12. What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim? - A) Inhibits cross linkage of the peptidoglycan polymer chains - B) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase - C) Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase - D) Inhibits DNA gyrase - E) Inhibits transpeptidation
Explanation: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
- A) Aromatase
- B) Phosphodiesterase
- C) Desmolase
- D) 21-hydroxlase
- E) 5-alpha reductase
Explanation: 5-alpha reductase
commenced on atosiban. What is the mechanism of action of atosiban? - A) Calcium channel blocker - B) GnRH analogue - C) GnRH antagonist - D) Oxytocin agonist - E) Oxytocin antagonist
Explanation: Oxytocin antagonist Q13. What is the mechanism of action of vincristine? - A) Inhibits topoisomerase II - B) Cross links DNA - C) Inhibits function of microtubules - D) Inhibits DNA polymerase - E) Alkylates nucleophilic groups on DNA bases
Explanation: Inhibits function of microtubules
incontinence. Examination is unremarkable and a midstream specimen of urine is sterile. She is treated for detrusor overactivity with Mirabegron. Which is the single mechanism of action for this drug? - A) Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor - B) Muscarinic receptors agonist - C) Selective Beta-1 agonist - D) Selective Beta-3 agonist - E) Selective Beta-3 antagonist
Explanation: Selective Beta-3 agonist Q14. Which of the following is an objective of a Phase 3 Clinical - A) testing? - B) Assess tolerance - C) Identify less common adverse reactions - D) Demonstrate/confirm efficacy - E) Estimate dose for subsequent studies Estimate activity
Q15. Explanation: - A) Oxytocin cannot be administrated by oral route because - B) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice - C) It is destroyed by gastric juice - D) It is eliminated very quickly - E) It is needed in large doses if taken orally It causes nausea and vomiting orally
Explanation: It is destroyed by gastric juice
following receptors? - A) Alpha - B) Gamma - C) Beta 1 - D) Beta 2 - E) Dopaminergic
Explanation: Beta 2 Q16. Which of the following drugs is used to suppress lactation - A) postpartum in mother who suffers from stillbirth? - B) Quetiapine - C) Metoclopramide - D) Loperamide - E) Leuprolide Cabergoline
Explanation: Two drugs have been marketed to stop milk production. These are bromocriptine (Parlodel TM) and cabergoline (DostinexTM). In the past they have been commonly used to dry up the milk of mothers of babies born sleeping or those who die soon after birth. Q17. What is the term used for the anticancer agent methotrexate? - A) Plant alkaloid - B) Antimetabolite - C) Alkylating agent - D) Intercalating agent - E) Chain cutting agent
Explanation: Antimetabolite
hospital acquired pneumonia reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA infection best respond to which antibiotics? - A) Piperacillin/tazobactam - B) Co-amoxiclav - C) Clindamycin - D) Ceftazidime - E) Vancomycin
Explanation: Vancomycin Q18. What is the mechanism of action of hydralazine? - A) α2 agonist - B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor - C) Antimuscarinic - D) β2 agonist - E) Direct-acting smooth-muscle relaxant
Explanation: Direct-acting smooth-muscle relaxant Q19. Which one of the following class of drugs causes neonatal - A) kernicterus? - B) Penicillin - C) Aminoglycoside - D) Sulphonamide - E) Macrolide Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Sulphonamide
and is administrated carboprost to promote uterine contraction. What type of drug is carboprost? - A) Oxytocin agonist - B) Progestogen - C) Synthetic prostaglandin E 1 - D) Synthetic prostaglandin E 2 - E) Synthetic prostaglandin F 2 α
Explanation: Synthetic prostaglandin F 2 α Q20. When should the last therapeutic dose of low molecular weight - A) heparin (LMWH) be stopped before regional anesthesia? - B) 6 hours - C) 12 hours - D) 24 hours - E) 48 hours 72 hours
Explanation: 24 hours
She became menopausal at age 50 and did not begin hormone replacement therapy because of a strong family history of breast and endometrial cancer. She now fears future menopausal symptoms and would like to begin a replacement regimen. Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is most appropriate for this patient? - A) Oral conjugated estrogen - B) Transdermal estrogen - C) Raloxifene - D) Tamoxifen - E) Trastuzumab
Explanation: Raloxifene Q21. Which of the following agents can cause premature closure of the - A) patent ductus arteriosus? - B) Prostaglandin E1 - C) Nitric oxide - D) Cortisone - E) Acetaminophen Indomethacin
Explanation: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is known as a non-aspirin pain reliever. It is NOT an NSAID
associated with "floppy infant syndrome?" - A) Naproxen - B) Diazepam - C) Nystatin - D) Warfarin - E) Phenytoin
Explanation: Benzodiazepine intake during early pregnancy may be teratogenic, and
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Explanation: Alpha methyl dopa Q23. Which adverse reaction is common and usually dose related in - A) patients taking misoprostol? - B) Nausea - C) Vomiting - D) Diarrhoea - E) Bloating Dyspepsia
Explanation: Diarrhoea
of its ability to - A) Block storage of acetylcholine ACH in neuronal vesicles - B) Inhibit the release of acetylcholine ACH from the neurons - C) Inhibit acetylcholine ACH synthesis - D) Block bladder nicotinic receptors - E) Block bladder muscarinic receptors
Explanation: Inhibit the release of acetylcholine ACH from the neurons
started her first cycle of chemotherapy. Several days after a treatment, she notes that she has blood in her urine. Cystoscopy reveals haemorrhagic cystitis. Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is most likely responsible for this side effect? - A) Etoposide - B) Methotrexate - C) Paclitaxel - D) Cyclophosphamide - E) Vincristine
Explanation: Cyclophosphamide
ulipristal acetate to a patient with fibroids prior to having a hysterectomy. To which class of drugs does ulipristal acetate belong? - A) Aromatase inhibitor - B) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) antagonist - C) Progestogen antagonist - D) Prostaglandin analogue - E) Selective estrogen receptor modulator
Explanation: As an SPRM selective progesterone receptor modulator, ulipristal acetate has partial agonistic as well as antagonistic effects on the progesterone receptor. Q24. Ondansetron is an effective antiemetic. - A) Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of - B) Ondansetron? - C) Histamine H1-receptor agonist - D) Histamine H1-receptor antagonist - E) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist Dopamine D2 receptor agonist Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
Explanation: Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist Q25. What is the most common adverse effect experienced by women - A) using depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)? - B) Menstrual abnormalities - C) Loss of bone mineral density - D) Weight gain - E) Injection site reactions Headache
Explanation: Weight gain
labour pain because - A) It is a strong µ receptor antagonist - B) It has a long duration of action - C) Multiple smaller doses over time decrease the incidence of side effects - D) It is rapidly metabolized by tissue estrases - E) It cannot cross the placenta
Explanation: It is rapidly metabolized by tissue estrases
arrest preterm labor. Which of the following is a major maternal risk of its use? - A) Hypertension - B) Decreased plasma glucose - C) Decreased serum potassium - D) Tachyarrhythmia - E) Asthma
Explanation: Tachyarrhythmia
prescribe oxybutynin. Which of the following diseases is aggravated by the use of this drug? - A) Parkinsonism - B) Bronchial asthma - C) Closed angle glaucoma - D) Diabetes mellitus - E) Diarrhoea
Explanation: Closed angle glaucoma
To treat her symptoms, you advise her to take indomethacin in the hopes that it will reduce her pain. What type of drug is indomethacin? - A) Cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor - B) Mixed opioid agonist antagonist - C) Derivative of 17α- ethinyltestosterone - D) Synthetic prostaglandin analogue - E) Synthetic steroid hormone
Explanation: Cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor
high doses of methotrexate. You anticipate significant host cell toxicity so immediately after giving methotrexate you administer which of the following agents? - A) Erythropoietin - B) MESNA (2-mercaptoethane sulfonate) - C) Acetylcysteine - D) Folic acid - E) Foloinic acid
Explanation: Foloinic acid
A&E with severe loin pain, shivering and vomiting. Her temperature is 38.8°C, pulse is 110 bpm and blood pressure is 88/56 mmHg. Urine dip shows leucocytes ++ and protein ++. Her midstream urine sample result shows: Sensitivities: Trimethoprim: Resistance Amoxicillin: Resistance Nitrofurantoin: Sensitive Cephalexin: Sensitive Gentamicin: Sensitive Culture: E.coli +++ What is the drug of choice for the treatment? - A) Trimethoprim oral - B) Nitrofurantoin oral - C) Cephalexin oral - D) Cephalexin injection - E) Gentamicin injection
Explanation: Cephalexin injection (also patient needs admission)
after emergency caesarean section for suspected fetal compromise. Culture of the wound demonstrates methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). She has no known allergies. Which is the most appropriate treatment? - A) Cephalosporins - B) Clindamycin - C) Piperacillin/tazobactam - D) Vancomycin - E) Teicoplanin
Explanation: Vancomycin
contraceptive pills wishes to discuss the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). She has no other risk factors for VTE. Which type of COCP is associated with the highest risk of VTE? - A) Loestrin 30 (ethinylestradiol / norethisterone) - B) Microgynon 30 (ethinylestradiol / levonorgestrel) - C) Microgynon 50 (ethinylestradiol / levonorgestrel) - D) Cilest (ethinylestradiol / norgestimate) - E) Yasmin (ethinylestradiol / drosperinone)
Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills that contain third-generation progestins (desogestrel or gestodeneor drospirenone) seem to be associated with greater VTE risk than those that contain levonorgestrel. Q26. Mirena (Intrauterine system) secretes in 24 hours - A) 5 micro gram - B) 20 micro gram - C) 35 micro gram - D) 50 micro gram - E) 75 micro gram
Explanation: 20 micro gram
- A) Non selective alpha and beta blocker
- B) Selective alpha and beta blocker
- C) Non selective beta blocker
- D) Selective beta blocker
- E) None of above
Explanation: Labetalol is highly selective for postsynaptic alpha1- adrenergic, and non-selective for beta-adrenergic receptors.
- A) High lipid solubility
- B) High protein binding
- C) Ionization of molecules
- D) All of above
- E) None of above
Explanation: High lipid solubility
Q27. Drosperinone is - A) Antiandrogenic - B) Androgenic - C) Estrogenic - D) Progestogenic - E) Anti mineralocorticoid
Explanation: Drospirenone is a progestin medication which is used in birth control pills to prevent pregnancy and in menopausal hormone therapy, among other uses. It is available both alone under the brand name Slynd and in combination with an estrogen under the brand name Yasmin among others.
Q28. Patient on lithium which organ anomaly occur - A) Heart - B) Kidney - C) Liver - D) Brain - E) Stomach
Explanation: Heart
Q29. 28 year old Women on carbamazepine for epilepsy what is the - A) suitable contraception - B) COCP - C) High dose COCP - D) POP - E) Mirena Implant
Explanation: Mirena
Q30. Aspirin and indomethacin what is the difference in action? - A) Aspirin irreversibly inhibit COX 1 than ibuprofen - B) Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX 1 than ibuprofen - C) Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX 2 than ibuprofen - D) Aspirin irreversibly inhibit COX 2 than ibuprofen - E) None of above
Explanation: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 but, more so, inhibits COX-1 than COX-2. COX inhibitors divide into non-selective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), COX-2 selective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (c2s NSAIDs), and aspirin. NSAIDs include ibuprofen, naproxen, ketorolac, and indomethacin. C2s NSAIDs only include celecoxib. Meloxicam and diclofenac are coxinhibitors that are not categorized. The COX-1 enzyme regulates many cellular processes, including platelet aggregation, kidney afferent arteriole vasodilation, and gastric mucosa acid protection. The COX-2 enzyme is an inducible enzyme and increases during inflammatory processes. It is present in the brain, kidney, bone, and female reproductive system.
Q31. 42 year old with frequency urgency urge incontinence. No stress - A) incontinence. Bladder diary showed low compliance but USG normal. And - B) no improvement in symptoms with bladder drill. - C) What is the next plan? - D) Antimuscarinic - E) Pelvic floor exercise Post tibial nerve stimulation Beta blocker Urodynamic studies
Explanation: Antimuscarinic Q32. Which organ anomaly occur with the use of ACE inhibitor? - A) Heart - B) Cranio facial - C) Kidney - D) Liver - E) GIT
Explanation: Kidney
contraceptive method you advice to her? - A) Barrier method - B) POP - C) COC - D) Mirena - E) All of above
Explanation: Barrier method
Q33. Coumarin drug antagonise which vitamin? - A) Vitamin A - B) Vitamin D - C) Vitamin K - D) Vitamin C - E) Vitamin E
Explanation: Vitamin K Q34. Mechanism of action of ulipristal acetate? - A) Partial progesterone receptor blockage - B) Selective Estrogen receptor modulator - C) Prostaglandin analogue - D) Selective progesterone receptor modulator - E) Oxytocin Antagonist
Explanation: Selective progesterone receptor modulator
contraception. LMP 20 days ago. H/O unprotected intercourse 7 days ago for which she took levonorgestrel. The couple had regular intercourse since then and last night the condom had breached. What is the best course for action? Levonorgestrel 1500 mu - A) Levonorgestrel 3000 mu - B) No need for additional contraception as levonorgestrel already inhibited - C) ovulation this cycle - D) Urlipristal acetate - E) Copper device
Explanation: No need for additional contraception as levonorgestrel already inhibited ovulation this cycle
Q35. A 25 years old patient presents to your clinic with history of heavy - A) menstrual bleeding for 1 year. She has a history of asthma. She plans to - B) start family in a year time. This bleeding is limiting her routine activity. - C) What is the first line in management of this patient? - D) COCP - E) Norethisterone Tranexmic acid Mefanimic acid Copper device
Explanation: Tranexmic acid
Q36. 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is 12-week pregnant. - A) She has been taken her lithium every night. - B) Which of the following abnormality may occur if she continues to take - C) lithium? - D) Tetralogy of Fallot's - E) Dandy walker syndrome Limb reduction deformity Transposition of great arteries Ebstein Anomaly
Explanation: Ebstein Anomaly Q37. Which anomaly occur with the use of Tetracycline? - A) Heart - B) Cranio facial - C) Kidney - D) Limbs - E) Teeth discolouration
Explanation: Teeth discolouration Q38. What is the mechanism of action of Clindamycin? - A) It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of the - B) ribosome - C) inhibits cell wall formation - D) inhibits DNA gyrase - E) interfere with DNA synthesis dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation: It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of the ribosome Q39. What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran? - A) Thrombin inhibitor - B) Thrombin activator - C) Antithrombin inhibitor - D) Antithrombin activator - E) Vitamin K inhibitor
Explanation: Dabigatran (Pradaxa) reversibly binds to the active site on the thrombin molecule, preventing thrombin-mediated activation of coagulation factors.
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Explanation: Warfarin acts on the extrinsic pathway, whilst heparin acts on the intrinsic pathway. Thus, warfarin efficacy is monitored using the INR – which utilises the prothrombin time. This is because warfarin acts on the extrinsic pathway – and the PT is a measure of the extrinsic pathway.
- A) Cell membrane permeabilty
- B) Cell wall synthesis
- C) Protein synthesis
- D) DNA synthesis
- E) RNA synthesis
Explanation: Cell wall synthesis Q41. Which of the following is contraindication of the use of - A) oxybutynin? - B) Bronchial asthma - C) Narrow angle glaucoma - D) Diabetes mellitus - E) Parkinsonism Peptic ulcer
Explanation: Narrow angle glaucoma Q42. Which of the following Antineoplastic drugs causing hemorrhagic - A) cystitis? - B) Cisplatin - C) Methotrexate - D) Paclitaxel - E) Cyclophosphamide Vincristine
Explanation: Cyclophosphamide Q43. Which of the following drugs cause Kernictrus? - A) Penicillin - B) Gentamycin - C) Sulphonamides - D) Methotrexate - E) Erythromycin
Explanation: Sulphonamides
course of action? - A) Trimethoprim - B) Nitrofurnatoin - C) Penicillin - D) Gentamycin - E) Doxycycline
Explanation: Nitrofurnatoin
- A) APTT
- B) PT-INR
- C) Anti factor Xa activity
- D) All of above
- E) None of above
Explanation: Anti factor Xa activity
- A) CNS
- B) CVS
- C) Craniofacial
- D) Limb
- E) Kidneys
Explanation: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have not previously been demonstrated, as a group, to be teratogenic. However, the results of an unpublished study by GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) has led the US Food and Drug Administration and Health Canada to warn that one SSRI, paroxetine, may increase the risk of major congenital malformations. However, paroxetine (Paxil) might be associated with a small increased risk of a fetal heart defect and is generally discouraged during pregnancy. Q44. Woman having VTE risk with COCP containing Desogestrel - A) 2 /10,000 - B) 5-7 /10,000 - C) 6-12 /10,000 - D) 9-12 /10,000 - E) None of above
Explanation: - A) Sulfonization - B) Conjugation - C) Reduction - D) Oxidation - E) Acetylation
Explanation: Isoniazid reaches therapeutic concentrations in serum, cerebrospinal fluid, and within caseous granulomas. It is metabolized in the liver via acetylation into acetylhydrazine.
- A) 3 days after commencement
- B) Up to first trimester only
- C) All throughout antenatal period
- D) Until discharge
- E) All antenatal period and 6 weeks postpartum
Explanation: Until discharge
avoid for long term use - A) Diazepam - B) Fluoxetine - C) Venlafaxine - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Diazepam
- A) 46, XX
- B) 46, XY
- C) 69, XXX
- D) 69, XXY
- E) 69, XYY
Explanation: 46, XX
Q45. The standard for conventional cytogenetic analysis of human - A) chromosomes is - B) FISH - C) G banding - D) M banding - E) DNA microarray QF-PCR
Explanation: G banding or Giemsa banding is a technique used in cytogenetics to produce a visible karyotype by staining condensed chromosomes. It is useful for identifying genetic diseases through the photographic representation of the entire chromosome complement. Conventional banded karyotyping is recognized as the gold standard for the diagnosis and prognosis of genetic diagnosis. Q46. What is the smallest human chromosome? - A) Chromosome 20 - B) Chromosome 21 - C) Chromosome 22 - D) Chromosome X - E) Chromosome Y
Explanation: Chromosome 21
on a routine blood test , with an MCV of 70. Serum electrophoresis reveals an Hb F of 0.5 percent, Hb A 1 of 60 percent, Hb A 2 of 2 percent and Hb S of 40 percent. Her ferritin levels are normal. The most likely diagnosis is - A) Iron deficiency anemia - B) α-thalassemia - C) β-thalassemia - D) Sickle cell trait - E) Sickle cell disease
Explanation: Sickle cell trait Q47. Which of the following is commonly used to determine hormone - A) receptor expression 'receptor status' of the breast cancer? - B) Mammogram - C) Fine needle aspiration cytology - D) Pestron emission computed tomography - E) Immunohistochemical staining Fluorescence in situ hybridization
Explanation: An immunohistochemistry (IHC) is used most often to find out if cancer cells have estrogen and progesterone receptors.
18 weeks gestation. Fibroblasts recovered from amniocentesis are grown in culture to assess the karyotype of fetal cells. These cells are subcultured for additional experimental work, but the culture is lost after 50 doublings of the cells has occurred, and the fibroblasts no longer grow. Which of the following factors affecting these cells is most likely demonstrated by this phenomenon? - A) Nutrition - B) Mutation - C) Apoptosis - D) Aging - E) Oxidation
Explanation: All cells experience changes with aging. They become larger and are less able to divide and multiply. Among other changes, there is an increase in pigments and fatty substances inside the cell (lipids). Many cells lose their ability to function, or they begin to function abnormally. Q48. Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell prepared - A) for DNA synthesis? - B) Gap phase 0 (G0) - C) Gap phase 1 (G1) - D) Gap phase 2 (G2) - E) Gap phase 2 (G2) Mitotic phase (M)
Explanation: Gap phase 1 (G1) Q49. Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is preceded by - A) mitosis? - B) Gap phase 0 (G0) - C) Gap phase 1 (G1) - D) Gap phase 2 (G2) - E) Gap phase 2 (G2) Gap phase 3 (G3)
Explanation: Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by interphase (G1, S, G2) The G0 phase describes a cellular state outside of the replicative cell cycle, cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage.
result in serious problems in infancy via which pattern of inheritance is the PKU? - A) Autosomal dominant - B) Autosomal recessive - C) X-linked dominant - D) X-linked recessive - E) Polygenic inheritance
Explanation: This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition. Q50. What is the mode of inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy - A) (DMD)? - B) Autosomal dominant - C) Autosomal recessive - D) X-linked dominant - E) X-linked recessive Mitochondrial inheritance
Explanation: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. X-linked means that the gene for the condition is located on the X- chromosome , one of the sex chromosomes . In males (who have only one X chromosome ), one altered copy of the gene is enough to cause the condition.
the endometrium occurs on what day after fertilization? - A) Day 3 - B) Day 5 - C) Day 7 - D) Day 14 - E) Day 28
Explanation: Implantation takes place anywhere between 6 and 12 days after you ovulate. It most commonly occurs 8 to 9 days after conception. Q51. What percentage of Down occur due to Robertsonian - A) Translocation? - B) 1% - C) 3% - D) 5% - E) 10% 15%
Explanation: About 3% of cases of Downs syndrome occur due to Robertsonian translocation, most commonly t (14; 21), other types of translocations are very rare cause of the syndrome.
and the following report is obtained : Age related risk; 1:1000 MoM AFP; 1.05 MoM β-hCG; 0.85 Test risk; 1:10000 What will you counsel this woman? - A) The fetus has down's syndrome - B) The fetus does not have down's syndrome - C) It is high risk for down's - D) It is low risk for down's - E) Ask the patient to go home
Explanation: The cut off is 1 in 150. This means that if screening test results show a risk of between 1 in 2 to 1 in 150 that the baby has Down's syndrome, this is classified as a higher risk result. If the results show a risk of 1 in 151 or more, this is classified as a lower risk result.
What is her life time risk of ovarian cancer? - A) 5% - B) 10% - C) 15% - D) 20% - E) 40%
Explanation: 40%
Q52. A newborn girl is found to have multiple midline malformations. - A) Her physician suspects a chromosomal disorders and orders a karyotype - B) (picture below). - C) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - D) Cri-du-chat syndrome - E) Down syndrome Turner syndrome Edward syndrome Patau syndrome
Explanation: Patau syndrome
Q53. The following image shows assisted conception technique by - A) intracytoplasmic sperm injection. - B) What will you see in the middle at 12'oclock? - C) Mature oocyte - D) Sperm - E) Second polar body First polar body Zygote
Explanation: First polar body
Q54. Nitrogenous bases make up cellular nucleic acids including DNA - A) and RNA. - B) Which base pairs with Adenine in the standard DNA helix? - C) Uranine - D) Inosine - E) Uracil Guanine Thymine
Explanation: In DNA base pairing, adenine always pairs with thymine, and guanine always pairs with cytosine. Adenine is also one of the bases in RNA. There it always pairs with uracil (U). Q55. Which biochemical technique is used to prenatal identification of - A) cystic fibrosis by using specifically amplifying predetermined DNA - B) sequences? - C) Karyotyping - D) Sweat test - E) Southern blotting Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Fluorescent in situ hybridization
Explanation: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method widely used to rapidly make millions to billions of copies (complete copies or partial copies) of a specific DNA sample, allowing scientists to take a very small sample of DNA and amplify it (or a part of it) to a large enough amount to study in detail. Q56. What is the function of DNA polymerase? - A) To unwind DNA helix during replication - B) To add nucleotides to the end of a template DNA strand - C) To synthesis the nucleotides of DNA strands - D) To seal together the broken ends of DNA strands - E) To proofread the growing DNA strands and replace mismatched nucleotides
Explanation: A DNA polymerase is a member of a family of enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of DNA molecules from nucleoside triphosphates. These enzymes are essential for DNA replication and usually work in groups to
(Page 4) 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. enzymes are essential for DNA replication and usually work in groups to create two identical DNA duplexes from a single original DNA duplex. DNA polymerases are responsible for synthesizing DNA, they add nucleotides one by one to the growing DNA chain, incorporating only those that are complementary to the template. Q57. Which of the following is the genotype of Edward's syndrome? - A) 45, XO - B) 46, XX - C) 47, XXY - D) 47, XX - E) 46, XX+18
Explanation: 46 xx +18 is not true, the true genotype is 47 xx or xy +18 Q58. Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle preceds - A) mitosis ? - B) Synthetic phase (S) - C) Gap phase 1 (G1) - D) Gap phase 0 (G0) - E) Gap phase 2 (G2) Gap phase 3 (G3)
Explanation: Gap phase 2 (G2) Q59. Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell become - A) quiescent? - B) Synthetic phase (S) - C) Gap phase 1 (G1) - D) Gap phase 0 (G0) - E) Gap phase 2 (G2) Mitotic phase (M)
Explanation: Gap phase 0 (G0) Q60. Which of these chromosomes have centromere located at one - A) side? - B) Telocentric chromosome - C) Metacentric chromosome - D) Dicenteric chromosome - E) Submetacentric chromosome Acrocentric chromosome
Explanation: Metacentric centromeres are located near the chromosome center. Submetacentric centromeres are non-centrally located so that one arm is longer than the other. Acrocentric centromeres are located near the end of a chromosome. Telocentric centromeres are found at the end or telomere region of a chromosome.
and RNA. Which of these nitrogen bases is found in RNA but not in DNA? - A) Thymine - B) Cytosine - C) Uracil - D) Guanine - E) Adenine
Explanation: Uracil
- A) Synthesis
- B) Translation
- C) Transcription
- D) Reverse transcription
- E) Replication
Explanation: Transcription is the process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). DNA safely and stably stores genetic material in the nuclei of cells as a reference, or template.
prenatal diagnosis would best be used on - A) Fetal RBCs - B) Fetal WBCs - C) Fetal fibroblasts - D) Amniotic cells - E) Chorionic cells
Explanation: Chorionic cells
abnormality. What is the name of this structural abnormality? - A) Deletion - B) Insertion - C) Inversion - D) Robertsonian translocation - E) Reciprocal translocation
Explanation: Insertion Q61. Which chromosomes are capable of robertsonian translocations? - A) X, Y - B) 15, 17, 19 - C) 16, 18, 20 - D) 9, 10, 11, 12 - E) 13, 14, 15, 21, 22
Explanation: Type explanation here...
47/XX 46/XXY 47/XXY 46/X0 45/X0
phase of the cell cycle? - A) Anaphase - B) Metaphase - C) Prophase - D) Synthetic phase - E) Telophase
Explanation: Metaphase
of mitosis? - A) 1 - B) 2 - C) 4 - D) 6 - E) 8
Explanation: 4 Q62. What is the basic principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? - A) Detection the presence of immunoglobulin on RBCs in vivo - B) Migration of Adult hemoglobins from anode to cathode - C) Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution - D) Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to denaturation by alkali - E) Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to denaturation by heat
Explanation: The KB test is the standard method of quantitating fetal–maternal hemorrhage , A standard blood smear is prepared from the mother's blood and exposed to an acid bath. This removes adult hemoglobin, but not fetal hemoglobin, from the red blood cells. Subsequent staining, using Shepard's method,makes fetal cells (containing fetal hemoglobin) appear rose-pink in color, while adult red blood cells are only seen as "ghosts". 2,000 cells are counted under the microscope and a percentage of fetal to maternal cells is calculated.
condition to all of his daughters, but not his sons, whereas a positive female will transmit the trait to half of her sons and half of her daughters. - A) Autosomal recessive - B) X-linked recessive - C) X-linked dominant - D) Mitochondrial inheritance - E) Y-linked dominant
Explanation: X-linked dominant Q63. Which of the following laboratory techniques is used for RNA - A) analysis? - B) Northern blotting - C) Southern blotting - D) Southwestern blotting - E) Western blotting
Explanation: Northern blotting
pregnancy. Booking bloods reveal her Blood group O and her rhesus status to be cde/cde; her long- standing partner is also tested at her request and his blood group A with rhesus status CDe/CDe. What is the expected blood group of her fetus? - A) A positive - B) A negative - C) O positive - D) O negative - E) AB positive
Explanation: A positive
Q64. A normal woman is considering having a child with her partner - A) who is carrier for cystic fibrosis. - B) What is the probability of them having an affected child? - C) 0% - D) 25% - E) 50% 75% 100%
Explanation: CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell . People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.
Q65. Approximately what percentage of the total human DNA is - A) mitochondrial DNA? - B) 1% - C) 20% - D) 50% - E) 80% 90%
Explanation: 1% Q66. Which part of the cell cycle is noted for sister chromatids - A) separating and moving to opposite sides of the cell? - B) Prophase - C) Anaphase - D) Metaphase - E) Synthesis phase Telophase
Explanation: Anaphase
results after completion of the 1st meiotic division - A) Oogonium - B) 2nd polar body - C) Primary oocyte - D) Secondary oocyte - E) Zygote
Explanation: Secondary oocyte
Q67. A woman is 8 weeks pregnant attends for genetic counseling. - A) She is known to be a carrier of cystic fibrosis and her sister has a child - B) with cystic fibrosis. Her husband is Caucasian and the carrier rate for - C) cystic fibrosis in the Caucasian descent is 1 in 25. - D) What is the risk of the child having cystic fibrosis? - E) 1% 25% 75% 80% 100%
Explanation: 1/25 x 1⁄4 = 1%
Q68. A woman and her husband are known carriers of cystic fibrosis. - A) What is the probability of them having an affected child? - B) 1% - C) 12.5% - D) 25% - E) 50% 75%
Explanation: 25%
Q69. The process of programmed gene directed cell death - A) characterized by blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear condensation and - B) fragmentation is known as - C) Apoptosis - D) Autophagy - E) Pyknosis Chromatolysis Necrosis
Explanation: Apoptosis: A form of cell death in which a programmed sequence of events leads to the elimination of cells without releasing harmful substances into the surrounding area.
Q70. Partial mole genotype - A) 46XX - B) 69 XXY - C) 47XX - D) 46XY - E) 46XYY
Explanation: 69 XXY
Q71. In the new non invasive prenatal diagnostic test of cell-free fetal - A) DNA, what is the source of the cells in maternal blood ? - B) Fetal WBCs - C) Fetal fibroblasts - D) Amniotic cells - E) Placental trophoblast None of above
Explanation: cffDNA originates from placental trophoblasts
Q72. In which stage DNA replicates - A) G1 - B) G0 - C) G2 - D) S phase - E) Mitosis
Explanation: S phase Q73. Which protein coiled in DNA? - A) Albumin - B) Globulin - C) Metalloprotein - D) Phosphoprotein - E) Histone
Explanation: Histones are a family of basic proteins that associate with DNA in the nucleus and help condense it into chromatin. Nuclear DNA does not appear in free linear strands; it is highly condensed and wrapped around histones in order to fit inside of the nucleus and take part in the formation of chromosomes. Q74. What is the diagnosis? - A) Down syndrome - B) Edward syndrome - C) Patau syndrome - D) Turner syndrome - E) Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation: Down syndrome Q75. Mother has sickle cell disease married to sickle cell trait husband - A) chance of baby to having disease - B) 25% - C) 50% - D) 75% - E) 100% All of above
Explanation: 50%
miscarriage. Ultrasound shows: - A) 46, XX - B) 46, XY - C) 69, XXX - D) 69, XXY - E) 69, XYY
Explanation: 46, XX Q76. What is the mode of inheritance? - A) Autosomal dominant - B) X-linked dominant - C) Y-linked dominant - D) Autosomal recessive - E) X-linked recessive
Explanation: X-linked recessive
weeks gestation. Her booking blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of
(Page 5) 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. Logout 10.1 g/dL. Electrophoresis reveals haemoglobin karyotype HbAS. What is the diagnosis? - A) Beta-thalassaemia major - B) Beta-thalassaemia trait - C) Hereditary spherocytosis - D) Sickle cell anaemia - E) Sickle cell trait
Explanation: Sickle cell trait Q77. Which biochemical technique is used to detect the presence and - A) the amount of a protein? - B) Northern blotting - C) Polymerase chain reaction - D) Southern blotting - E) Western blotting X-ray crystallography
Explanation: Western blotting Q78. Which of the following enzymes used in Transcription? - A) DNA Polymerase - B) RNA Polymerase - C) Reverse transcriptase - D) Restriction endonuclease - E) DNA ligase
Explanation: RNA Polymerase
DNA transcription unit is called? - A) DNA polymerase - B) RNA polymerase - C) Reverse transcriptase - D) Helicase - E) DNA ligase
Explanation: During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template to produce a pre-mRNA transcript. The pre-mRNA is processed to form a mature mRNA molecule that can be translated to build the protein molecule (polypeptide) encoded by the original gene.
weeks’ gestation. Her booking blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 10.1 g/dL. Haemoglobin electrophoresis reveals homozygous for HbS, she has no HbA - A) Sickle cyprositis - B) Sickle cell disease - C) Sickle cell trait - D) Sickle cell anemia - E) Beta thalassemia
Explanation: Sickle cell anemia
- A) Down's syndrome
- B) Edward syndrome
- C) Patau syndrome
- D) Klinefelter syndrome
- E) Turner syndrome
Explanation: Klinefelter syndrome Q79. What type of compound is Histones? - A) Carbohydrate - B) Fatty acid - C) Prostaglandin - D) Protein - E) Steroid
Explanation: Protein
- A) What is the possible karyotype
- B) 46xy
- C) 46xxy
- D) 46xx
- E) 46xyy
Explanation: 46xxy
- A) 27genes
- B) 37genes
- C) 57genes
- D) 87genes
- E) 97genes
Explanation: The mitochondrial genome contains 37 genes that encode 13 proteins, 22 tRNAs, and 2 rRNAs.
Q80. CRISPR/Cas9 indicate what in molecular biology? - A) Transcription factor and an enzyme - B) DNA and an enzyme - C) RNA and an enzyme - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: Cas9 (or "CRISPR-associated protein 9") is an enzyme that uses CRISPR sequences as a guide to recognize and cleave specific strands of DNA that are complementary to the CRISPR sequence. Q81. Which organelle can attach to tRNA and can synthesise protein? - A) Nucleus - B) Mitochondria - C) Ribosome - D) ER - E) Golgi apparatus
Explanation: Ribosome
and examination, the picture showing kelinfelters features, asked about what will be results in man: TESTOSTERONE/ FSH /LH /SHBG - A) Dec inc inc inc - B) Inc dec dec inc - C) Dec inc inc dec - D) All of above - E) None of above
Explanation: In patients with Klinefelter's syndrome, blood tests characteristically show a low testosterone level, high sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) and raised gonadotrophins. The diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome is confirmed by chromosomal analysis (karyotyping).
Q82. Baby having features of oligohydramnios, low set ears, limb - A) Hypoplasia, renal agenesis. - B) What is the diagnosis? - C) Down syndrome - D) Edward syndrome - E) Patau syndrome Potter syndrome Prader willi syndrome
Explanation: